It is amusing how the Muslims read the hate sites and all of a sudden they know all about what Jesus said. Baghdad Bob wouldn't be the first Muslim to bring up this passage nor will he be the last. As one poster on another forum, whose grandfather is a pastor and who has had Bible study since he was a kid, said .... Jesus was talking to a handful of friends with whom he was having a disagreement. He was not referring to all the Jews. I wonder if Jesus were alive today, would he be calling the Muslims the sons of the Devil because they are busy murdering His followers and burning down their churches in Muslim countries. What do you think He would say about this, Bob? Now here is what the poster said, Bob. I think he knows much more than you do.I do not think you know anything about Jesus.
That's OK, l'il sherrithing: nobody here thinks you know anything about Jesus, either.
What would you know about Jesus?
JESUS CHRIST, speaking to the Jews in the Gospel of St. John, VIII:44
"Ye are of your father the devil, and the lust of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is not truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar and the father of it. - then answered the Jews - "
******The haters have a field day with John's Gospel in part because the traditional translation in the text of the Greek word, "ioudaioi" is incorrect. It's rendered "the Jews" rather than "the Judeans" (ie inhabitants and especially leaders in Judea as opposed to Galilee). The best way to see this is to take a traditional translation of John's Gospel, and every time the word, "Jews" comes up, cross it out and write "Judeans" in its place. Most of the time, the translation reads far better.....especially the many times in which the context is the disciples and Jesus making decisions on crossing into Judea from Galilee. Another proof that the translation is wrong is that in that gospel, while the translation rightly deems the inhabitants of Galilee as Galileans, the inhabitants of Judea are nowhere called Judeans. Each and every time, they are called Jews. Why are they never called Judeans? Because the translators are mistranslating the word ioudaioi as Jews, when it should be Judeans....meaning not all Jews, but Jews from Judea, and specifically, in John's usage, the tiny handful of chief priests and Roman collaborators who represented nobody but themselves and their Roman patrons.