Jesus is God

[Indeependent]

Many people, including some Christians, refuse to believe that Jesus is equal with God. The Bible is clear about this. Jesus Himself said that "I and my Father are one." There is much controversy over what this means. Perhaps this will help clear things up.

I and my Father are one.—The last clause of John 10:29 is identical with the last clause of John 10:28 if we identify “Father’s” with “My.” This our Lord now formally does. The last verses have told of power greater than all, and these words are an assertion that in the infinity of All-mighty Power the Son is one with the Father. They are more than this, for the Greek word for “one” is neuter, and the thought is not, therefore, of unity of person, but is of unity of essence. “The Son is of one substance with the Father.” In the plural “are” there is the assertion of distinctness as against Sabellianism, and in the “one” there is the assertion of co-ordination as against Arianism. At recurring periods in the history of exegesis men have tried to establish that these words do not imply more than unity of will between the Father and the Son. We have seen above that they assert both oneness of power and oneness of nature; but the best answer to all attempts to attach any meaning lower than that of the divinity of our Lord to these His words is found here, as in the parallel instance in John 8:58-59, in the conduct of the Jews themselves. To them the words conveyed but one meaning, and they sought to punish by stoning what seemed to them to be blasphemy. Their reason is here given in express words, “because that Thou, being a man, makest thyself God” (John 10:33).

Jesus did not speak Greek and John is not a reliable source.
He seems to have written his stuff long after jesus died----ie NEVAH MET HIM but is reporting like an eyewitness. His stuff is MYSTICAL interpretation-----why talk about it like its a CONCRETE reality? Jews certainly had a hard time KILLING people that they wanted to kill. Seems like they "wanted" to kill Jesus for at least 100 years.

That is nothing but your uninformed opinion. I have shown you what Jesus said, in the original language. And why do you say John is not a reliable source? You're going to have to back that up, if you want to be taken seriously.

Since the Tanach predates even the Book of James, which disagrees with the Gospels, you have to back up whatever you claim.

 

[Indeependent]

Show me one source in Tanach that might lead an educated Jew to accept that God and any possible physical manifestation of a human are one and the same.
Restrict yourself to the Tanach, because when Jesus was preaching, there was no NT.

Rather than argue with a stubborn Judas, I'll just point out that in the first century many Jews did accept Jesus as God, when there was not NT. Maybe you will say they were ignorant, but every Jew today is more ignorant than the Apostle Paul was.

And they faded off into history.
I don't know how I would have reacted to the Temple's destruction.
As far as my knowledge compared to the ignoramus Paul, you've got to be kidding.
You don't have the balls to research all of his quotes and see how wrong they are.

 

[Indeependent]

Jesus as depicted in the New Testament Never LIVED....Since the DEVIL is the opposite of LIVED shinning a Mirror right back at you Bulletproof JESUS is indeed the DEVIL and you and your fellow Christians worship this created image Jews do not therefore it is you that worship the DEVIL.... Wink...

I see the Talmud is strong in you. Jesus is not a [human-] created image of a god. He's the incarnation of God. But, we can agree that Jews and Christians don't have the same god.

bullet-----what does "I see the Talmud is strong in you" mean ??? in this context

Don't fret over BP.
He claimed to know Hebrew and I humiliated him.

 

[Indeependent]

Show me one source in Tanach that might lead an educated Jew to accept that God and any possible physical manifestation of a human are one and the same.
Restrict yourself to the Tanach, because when Jesus was preaching, there was no NT.

Rather than argue with a stubborn Judas, I'll just point out that in the first century many Jews did accept Jesus as God, when there was not NT. Maybe you will say they were ignorant, but every Jew today is more ignorant than the Apostle Paul was.

you have said absolutely nothing. It is not entirely clear that the "trinity" concept even EXISTED in the first century AD

It didn't.
The guy who came up with the concept didn't believe in it.

 

[irosie91]

Show me one source in Tanach that might lead an educated Jew to accept that God and any possible physical manifestation of a human are one and the same.
Restrict yourself to the Tanach, because when Jesus was preaching, there was no NT.

Rather than argue with a stubborn Judas, I'll just point out that in the first century many Jews did accept Jesus as God, when there was not NT. Maybe you will say they were ignorant, but every Jew today is more ignorant than the Apostle Paul was.

And they faded off into history.
I don't know how I would have reacted to the Temple's destruction.
As far as my knowledge compared to the ignoramus Paul, you've got to be kidding.
You don't have the balls to research all of his quotes and see how wrong they are.

Paul meant well------he was something like the Jimmy
Carter of his time------a well-meaning jerk

 

[irosie91]

Show me one source in Tanach that might lead an educated Jew to accept that God and any possible physical manifestation of a human are one and the same.
Restrict yourself to the Tanach, because when Jesus was preaching, there was no NT.

Rather than argue with a stubborn Judas, I'll just point out that in the first century many Jews did accept Jesus as God, when there was not NT. Maybe you will say they were ignorant, but every Jew today is more ignorant than the Apostle Paul was.

you have said absolutely nothing. It is not entirely clear that the "trinity" concept even EXISTED in the first century AD

It didn't.
The guy who came up with the concept didn't believe in it.

who is that ? Constantine or one of his merry councilmen?

 

[BulletProof]

what is known about JOHN ---the one who wrote a gospel is
that he did his writing circa 100 AD That is 70 years after Jesus died. GREEK is not the language in which Jesus spoke-----he spoke Aramaic. You quoted a translation of a greek text and then struggled to "prove" something by analyzing the greek word for "ONE"

Greek is the language Jesus spoke. The New Testament quotes show no evidence of being a translation, and much evidence of not being a translation. Greek primacy is beyond dispute, the bigotry of Zionists aside. The case for the Gospel of John being written ca 100 AD is weak. The author's knowledge of early first-century circumstances is arguably flawless, and it isn't influenced by the other gospels, both powerfully suggesting a date much earlier than the end of the century.

 

[Indeependent]

Show me one source in Tanach that might lead an educated Jew to accept that God and any possible physical manifestation of a human are one and the same.
Restrict yourself to the Tanach, because when Jesus was preaching, there was no NT.

Rather than argue with a stubborn Judas, I'll just point out that in the first century many Jews did accept Jesus as God, when there was not NT. Maybe you will say they were ignorant, but every Jew today is more ignorant than the Apostle Paul was.

you have said absolutely nothing. It is not entirely clear that the "trinity" concept even EXISTED in the first century AD

It didn't.
The guy who came up with the concept didn't believe in it.

who is that ? Constantine or one of his merry councilmen?

Origin.

 

[Indeependent]

what is known about JOHN ---the one who wrote a gospel is
that he did his writing circa 100 AD That is 70 years after Jesus died. GREEK is not the language in which Jesus spoke-----he spoke Aramaic. You quoted a translation of a greek text and then struggled to "prove" something by analyzing the greek word for "ONE"

Greek is the language Jesus spoke. The New Testament quotes show no evidence of being a translation, and much evidence of not being a translation. Greek primacy is beyond dispute, the bigotry of Zionists aside. The case for the Gospel of John being written ca 100 AD is weak. The author's knowledge of early first-century circumstances is arguably flawless, and it isn't influenced by the other gospels, both powerfully suggesting a date much earlier than the end of the century.

Who gives a damn...every quote is a manipulation.

 

[jillian]

Many people, including some Christians, refuse to believe that Jesus is equal with God. The Bible is clear about this. Jesus Himself said that "I and my Father are one." There is much controversy over what this means. Perhaps this will help clear things up.

I and my Father are one.—The last clause of John 10:29 is identical with the last clause of John 10:28 if we identify “Father’s” with “My.” This our Lord now formally does. The last verses have told of power greater than all, and these words are an assertion that in the infinity of All-mighty Power the Son is one with the Father. They are more than this, for the Greek word for “one” is neuter, and the thought is not, therefore, of unity of person, but is of unity of essence. “The Son is of one substance with the Father.” In the plural “are” there is the assertion of distinctness as against Sabellianism, and in the “one” there is the assertion of co-ordination as against Arianism. At recurring periods in the history of exegesis men have tried to establish that these words do not imply more than unity of will between the Father and the Son. We have seen above that they assert both oneness of power and oneness of nature; but the best answer to all attempts to attach any meaning lower than that of the divinity of our Lord to these His words is found here, as in the parallel instance in John 8:58-59, in the conduct of the Jews themselves. To them the words conveyed but one meaning, and they sought to punish by stoning what seemed to them to be blasphemy. Their reason is here given in express words, “because that Thou, being a man, makest thyself God” (John 10:33).

Show me one source in Tanach that might lead an educated Jew to accept that God and any possible physical manifestation of a human are one and the same.
Restrict yourself to the Tanach, because when Jesus was preaching, there was no NT.

G-d warned about false prophets and false pharisees....

Jesus was one of any number of people calling themselves messiah at the time. all of them were crucified because they were a threat to Rome.

if one looks at the gospel of Mary, which christians hate because a) it was from a woman and b) Peter was jealous of her, Mary does not say Jesus, or yeshua, rose from the dead. she said his body disappeared. Peter also made her into a whore when given that she and Jesus' mother attended his body, under jewish law she'd have had to have been his wife as only a wife and/or mother would be allowed to attend a male body.

 

[irosie91]

what is known about JOHN ---the one who wrote a gospel is
that he did his writing circa 100 AD That is 70 years after Jesus died. GREEK is not the language in which Jesus spoke-----he spoke Aramaic. You quoted a translation of a greek text and then struggled to "prove" something by analyzing the greek word for "ONE"

Greek is the language Jesus spoke. The New Testament quotes show no evidence of being a translation, and much evidence of not being a translation. Greek primacy is beyond dispute, the bigotry of Zionists aside. The case for the Gospel of John being written ca 100 AD is weak. The author's knowledge of early first-century circumstances is arguably flawless, and it isn't influenced by the other gospels, both powerfully suggesting a date much earlier than the end of the century.

Who gives a damn...every quote is a manipulation.

that John Doe of the bible------is QUOTED incessantly---
keep in mind, "JOHN" wrote the book of Revulsions too.
Talented guy-----he beats Isaac Azimov in mushroom galvanized imagery--------but whoever or how many of them there were--------WRITE AS IF THEY HEARD JESUS say something-------which somehow came out in GREEK

 

[jillian]

what is known about JOHN ---the one who wrote a gospel is
that he did his writing circa 100 AD That is 70 years after Jesus died. GREEK is not the language in which Jesus spoke-----he spoke Aramaic. You quoted a translation of a greek text and then struggled to "prove" something by analyzing the greek word for "ONE"

Greek is the language Jesus spoke. The New Testament quotes show no evidence of being a translation, and much evidence of not being a translation. Greek primacy is beyond dispute, the bigotry of Zionists aside. The case for the Gospel of John being written ca 100 AD is weak. The author's knowledge of early first-century circumstances is arguably flawless, and it isn't influenced by the other gospels, both powerfully suggesting a date much earlier than the end of the century.

yeshua spoke Aramaic

 

[ScienceRocks]

Lets just say that My god is science. Science does a trillion times more for me and humanity then any sky god ever did.

 

[Votto]

Many people, including some Christians, refuse to believe that Jesus is equal with God. The Bible is clear about this. Jesus Himself said that "I and my Father are one." There is much controversy over what this means. Perhaps this will help clear things up.

I and my Father are one.—The last clause of John 10:29 is identical with the last clause of John 10:28 if we identify “Father’s” with “My.” This our Lord now formally does. The last verses have told of power greater than all, and these words are an assertion that in the infinity of All-mighty Power the Son is one with the Father. They are more than this, for the Greek word for “one” is neuter, and the thought is not, therefore, of unity of person, but is of unity of essence. “The Son is of one substance with the Father.” In the plural “are” there is the assertion of distinctness as against Sabellianism, and in the “one” there is the assertion of co-ordination as against Arianism. At recurring periods in the history of exegesis men have tried to establish that these words do not imply more than unity of will between the Father and the Son. We have seen above that they assert both oneness of power and oneness of nature; but the best answer to all attempts to attach any meaning lower than that of the divinity of our Lord to these His words is found here, as in the parallel instance in John 8:58-59, in the conduct of the Jews themselves. To them the words conveyed but one meaning, and they sought to punish by stoning what seemed to them to be blasphemy. Their reason is here given in express words, “because that Thou, being a man, makest thyself God” (John 10:33).

Show me one source in Tanach that might lead an educated Jew to accept that God and any possible physical manifestation of a human are one and the same.
Restrict yourself to the Tanach, because when Jesus was preaching, there was no NT.

Apparently the Jews did not kill Jesus for making himself the Son of God, apparently it was because he resembled the prophets of the past that they killed whom God sent them.

 

[jillian]

Lets just say that My god is science. Science does a trillion times more for me and humanity then any sky god ever did.

I don't believe the two are mutually exclusive.

 

[irosie91]

Lets just say that My god is science. Science does a trillion times more for me and humanity then any sky god ever did.[/QUOT

I need an equation that describes the course of a YOYO as it goes up and down and why it does so

 

[Indeependent]

Many people, including some Christians, refuse to believe that Jesus is equal with God. The Bible is clear about this. Jesus Himself said that "I and my Father are one." There is much controversy over what this means. Perhaps this will help clear things up.

I and my Father are one.—The last clause of John 10:29 is identical with the last clause of John 10:28 if we identify “Father’s” with “My.” This our Lord now formally does. The last verses have told of power greater than all, and these words are an assertion that in the infinity of All-mighty Power the Son is one with the Father. They are more than this, for the Greek word for “one” is neuter, and the thought is not, therefore, of unity of person, but is of unity of essence. “The Son is of one substance with the Father.” In the plural “are” there is the assertion of distinctness as against Sabellianism, and in the “one” there is the assertion of co-ordination as against Arianism. At recurring periods in the history of exegesis men have tried to establish that these words do not imply more than unity of will between the Father and the Son. We have seen above that they assert both oneness of power and oneness of nature; but the best answer to all attempts to attach any meaning lower than that of the divinity of our Lord to these His words is found here, as in the parallel instance in John 8:58-59, in the conduct of the Jews themselves. To them the words conveyed but one meaning, and they sought to punish by stoning what seemed to them to be blasphemy. Their reason is here given in express words, “because that Thou, being a man, makest thyself God” (John 10:33).

Show me one source in Tanach that might lead an educated Jew to accept that God and any possible physical manifestation of a human are one and the same.
Restrict yourself to the Tanach, because when Jesus was preaching, there was no NT.

Apparently the Jews did not kill Jesus for making himself the Son of God, apparently it was because he resembled the prophets of the past that they killed whom God sent them.

What on Earth are you talking about?

 

[irosie91]

Lets just say that My god is science. Science does a trillion times more for me and humanity then any sky god ever did.

I don't believe the two are mutually exclusive.

False Pharisees?????? WATS DAT?

 

[jillian]

Many people, including some Christians, refuse to believe that Jesus is equal with God. The Bible is clear about this. Jesus Himself said that "I and my Father are one." There is much controversy over what this means. Perhaps this will help clear things up.

I and my Father are one.—The last clause of John 10:29 is identical with the last clause of John 10:28 if we identify “Father’s” with “My.” This our Lord now formally does. The last verses have told of power greater than all, and these words are an assertion that in the infinity of All-mighty Power the Son is one with the Father. They are more than this, for the Greek word for “one” is neuter, and the thought is not, therefore, of unity of person, but is of unity of essence. “The Son is of one substance with the Father.” In the plural “are” there is the assertion of distinctness as against Sabellianism, and in the “one” there is the assertion of co-ordination as against Arianism. At recurring periods in the history of exegesis men have tried to establish that these words do not imply more than unity of will between the Father and the Son. We have seen above that they assert both oneness of power and oneness of nature; but the best answer to all attempts to attach any meaning lower than that of the divinity of our Lord to these His words is found here, as in the parallel instance in John 8:58-59, in the conduct of the Jews themselves. To them the words conveyed but one meaning, and they sought to punish by stoning what seemed to them to be blasphemy. Their reason is here given in express words, “because that Thou, being a man, makest thyself God” (John 10:33).

Show me one source in Tanach that might lead an educated Jew to accept that God and any possible physical manifestation of a human are one and the same.
Restrict yourself to the Tanach, because when Jesus was preaching, there was no NT.

Apparently the Jews did not kill Jesus for making himself the Son of God, apparently it was because he resembled the prophets of the past that they killed whom God sent them.

the romans killed Jesus because he wanted Rome out of Jerusalem.

or do you not know that the romans crucified him as was their common means of execution. the letters placed on his cross were the same they placed on the crosses of everyone who tried to call themselves messiah.

 

[Votto]

Many people, including some Christians, refuse to believe that Jesus is equal with God. The Bible is clear about this. Jesus Himself said that "I and my Father are one." There is much controversy over what this means. Perhaps this will help clear things up.

I and my Father are one.—The last clause of John 10:29 is identical with the last clause of John 10:28 if we identify “Father’s” with “My.” This our Lord now formally does. The last verses have told of power greater than all, and these words are an assertion that in the infinity of All-mighty Power the Son is one with the Father. They are more than this, for the Greek word for “one” is neuter, and the thought is not, therefore, of unity of person, but is of unity of essence. “The Son is of one substance with the Father.” In the plural “are” there is the assertion of distinctness as against Sabellianism, and in the “one” there is the assertion of co-ordination as against Arianism. At recurring periods in the history of exegesis men have tried to establish that these words do not imply more than unity of will between the Father and the Son. We have seen above that they assert both oneness of power and oneness of nature; but the best answer to all attempts to attach any meaning lower than that of the divinity of our Lord to these His words is found here, as in the parallel instance in John 8:58-59, in the conduct of the Jews themselves. To them the words conveyed but one meaning, and they sought to punish by stoning what seemed to them to be blasphemy. Their reason is here given in express words, “because that Thou, being a man, makest thyself God” (John 10:33).

Show me one source in Tanach that might lead an educated Jew to accept that God and any possible physical manifestation of a human are one and the same.
Restrict yourself to the Tanach, because when Jesus was preaching, there was no NT.

Apparently the Jews did not kill Jesus for making himself the Son of God, apparently it was because he resembled the prophets of the past that they killed whom God sent them.

the romans killed Jesus because he wanted Rome out of Jerusalem.

or do you not know that the romans crucified him as was their common means of execution. the letters placed on his cross were the same they placed on the crosses of everyone who tried to call themselves messiah.

Really, so Jews think Jesus was really a prophet of God?

Maybe that is why they killed him. They killed off most others.