Harry Dresden
Adamantium Member
no it doesnt have to follow the first part....they could have just left it at this...."A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State,shall not be infringed"....but they did not do that did they?....did you know, that nobody should Ever take the right wing seriously about the law or economics?yes it does.....so who are the "people" in the second part?...."the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed"It specifically applies to well regulated militia, not the unorganized militia.well yea it does.....people have owned guns since day one here.....you just wont agree joe because you are an anti gun person.....so of course to people with your mindset the second amendment only applies to an organized militia....its been that way since around 1791......
Well, no, it hasn't. In fact, for most of our history, the courts have ruled that cities and states have the right to make gun laws because of the whole "Well-regulated Militia" thing.
the second clause of our second amendment, is simply that, a clause; it is Not, a Constitution unto itself. it is merely a second clause that must follow the first clause, of our Second Article of Amendment.