Mustang
Gold Member
You obviously do not. So perhaps you need to question your idea of what constitutes morality, especially if you consider yourself as someone who believes in moral absolutes. So, let me put essentially the same question to you about something that's both equivalent in terms of the example, but it's also less immediate because it happened a long time ago, and anyone who participated in the events or witnessed the events has long since died. Keep in mind that this is a historical fact.
Back in the 1800s, marauding Indians killed settlers and their families, members of wagon trains, farmers and their families etc.
Back in the 1800s, American cavalry rode into villages and killed innocent old men, women, and children even when the young men were away in hunting parties.
Do you consider those events to be morally equivalent?
I sort of do. Because humans who were enlightened, even when facing ills, would be able to separate misguidance from murder (especially of women and children).
To clarify:
If a fleet of men were killing my people: men, women and children, I wouldn't then find it justified to kill their women and children also (in any moral sense).
Since you don't read, you probably don't know that most of the "genocide of Indians" is a Liberal myth.
You sound EXACTLY like a holocaust denier!