Skylar
Diamond Member
- Jul 5, 2014
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Ah. Well then the answer to your question is obvious: Abortion isn't the same as child molestation (definition 2).
Did I claim it met definition two? Dullard?
I'm betting that you were unaware until now - that there are more than one form of molestation and that not all molestations are sexual.
Abortion isn't any form of 'child molestation' in our law. As you well know.
Oh, and I noticed you just completely ran from my question regarding where the conflict between Roe and Federal Fetal Protection laws could be found.
Here's the Roe Decision......
Roe v. Wade
Show me.
Here again, your argument against what SHOULD be in a law is to point out the fact that it is currently NOT in the law.
Again, in the law there is an authority. Contrary to your claims, legal interpretations are not like Biblical ones. And abortion isn't any kind of child molestation in our system of law. Nor would any judge every equate them.
If you believe it should be, make your case.
Yours is a Classic appeal to authority fallacious defense of the status quo.
Again, in the law there is an authority. And your legal reasoning has been found to be univerally invalid. Every single time its been used in court to challenged abortion.....you've lost.
History is not a fallacy of logic. No matter how hard you want to ignore it.
By the definition I provided (ref. number one)
That's not anything remotely close to the legal definition of molestation. Why then should we change the law to make it closer to your personal preferences?
Do aborted children escape unmolested from the womb after an abortion procedure?
Yes or no?
Under the law? An aborted fetus isn't a child. Remember.....nothing of the Federal Fetal Protection law applies to abortion. Not even its terminology.