RetiredGySgt
Diamond Member
No it does not. Learn English, we have several professors of English language that have explained several times to dumb asses like you the controlling part of the sentence is the the right of the people part. All the militia part is is one of many reasons that might justify the ownership of weapons. It is not the only reason.In another thread, you admit you want to bankrupt companies who make guns, which proves the provisions applied to the Lawful Firearms Protection Act is required. But let’s take your car analogy, weak as it might be.
I actually do not have to license, get tags and pay taxes, or get insurance on a car I buy. I have to do so if I want to drive it on the road. But lets say I want to use it on my property. A work truck that will not leave the land. No tags, insurance, or taxes required. I can even get a waiver and get my gasoline Tax Free. Red Gas. A crime to use it on the road, but legal to use on private property.
That's kind of a retarded analogy. Okay, let's say we let you own a gun, but you can't own any bullets.
That works, too.
It says the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
It says that in the context of a "Well-Regulated Militia".