Zombie_Pundit
Member
- May 12, 2014
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You make an interesting point
But as a follow up. If your employee doesn't earn enough to support himself, should the taxpayer make up the difference?
Should an employer have the taxpayers support his employees just so that he can profit off of substandard wages?
The term "substandard" is purely subjective and idiosyncratic. There is no such thing as a "standard wage" in economics. There is only the market wage. You are claiming that employers have some obligation to pay more than the market wage. So far, I haven't seen a smidgeon of justification for such a claim. Can you explain it?
Here in the United States employers do have an obligation to pay a minimum wage that may be higher than the market wage if the market wage could be determined in those low wage cases.
The law is the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938. You might want to google that.
In terms of justification, well, I shall appeal to the authority of SCOTUS.
"...the exploitation of a class of workers who are in an unequal position with respect to bargaining power, and are thus relatively defenceless against the denial of a living wage, is not only detrimental to their health and wellbeing, but casts a direct burden for their support upon the community. What these workers lose in wages, the taxpayers are called upon to pay. The bare cost of living must be met."
West Coast Hotel Co. v. Parrish, 300 US 379 - 1937
That quote is from a SCOTUS decision upholding the constitutionality of a minimum wage. The reasoning is quite clear. You are, of course, free to disagree with SCOTUS and attempt to raise the issue with the court again.