Well what it was supposed to mean or what the founding fathers intended are not relevant here.Marbury v. Madison was supposed to mean congress can't pass a law that violates the Constitution. It was not supposed to mean the supreme court can say "times have changed" and change the Constitution
I'm not sure what point you're trying to make other than the supreme court is a politburo, which I already know
Well all I did was to point out that SCOTUS and the US government instituted and upheld constitutional and perfectly legal slave ownership for 80-something years BEFORE a civil war. Whether the court had the authority to make the rulings they made or whether we are obligated to follow rulings we don't like... those are a different conversation. You can't use that to refute the aforementioned fact.
Right or wrong, slavery was legal and constitutional. Slaves were not citizens with rights, they were owned property. The CSA didn't decide that... the South didn't decide it.
With the ratification of the fifth amendment, the Federal government should never have helped return slaves who escaped as it was a violation of their Constitutional rights and they had the authority to prevent any State from returning a runaway slave who crossed State lines.
The Constitution gave the Federal government virtually zero power inside States. So saying it was "constitutional" is misleading. The Constitution didn't authorize the Federal government to end it as long as it occurred within the State. But the Constitution didn't authorize the Federal government to do pretty much anything within States. No one, white or black had a Constitutional right then from their State government to a trial by jury, to have a warrant, for free speech, to own a gun, to be put to death for illegal parking or anything else. The Constitution defined the Federal government and gave the government only power for interstate and foreign affairs.
After the civil war was when they amended the Constitution to force States to protect Constitutional rights
No... It simply was NOT a violation of their Constitutional rights because they weren't considered citizens until the 14th Amendment. You're attempting to retroactively apply the 14th Amendment to the pre-Civil War era.
My argument that you can't retroactively apply the 14th amendment to the pre-civil war era is attempting to retroactively apply the 14th amendment to the pre-civil war era?
Maybe you should try reading my post again...