Statistikhengst
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- #741
It isn't..In fact the Constitution mentions armed insurrection. As does the US CodeThe "law" cannot say any such thing since Cruz only pointed out that the creation of the Second Amendment WAS historically for a particular set of purposes. He was and still is entirely right.
Only, as I just pointed out to you very clearly, one and only one purpose is listed in the 2nd amendment for the bearing of arms, and armed insurrection against the Government is NOT the reason listed.
What part of the word "logic" do you not understand?
No,. You didn't point anything out clearly. You offered a facile and erroneous analysis.
You were wrong and you still are.
The PURPOSES buttressing the 2d Amendment were discussed by the various States at the time of the RATIFICATIONs. Your refusal of recognition of historical fact doesn't change history. It just makes you studiously blind to it.
The CONSTITUTION would not have been ratified and we would not BE the United States of America if it were not for the promise of the Bill of Rights. The bill of rights (including the 2d amendment) was INSISTED upon for a whole lot of reasons INCLUDING the desire to place another CHECK on the feared prospect of an overly powerful central government.
The PURPOSES for the 2d Amendment do not have to be listed
for them to exist. Are the Purposes for freedom of speech and freedom of the press and freedom of association and freedom of religion all explicitly listed? Do you imagine they must be or they cease to exist?
Snap the fuck out of it.
So, now you have gone from not being about to actually quote anything from the Constitution or Federal Law to saying that OPINIONS of individuals from various states "buttress"(ed) the purposes of the 2nd Amendment.
I ask for one final time:
Where EXACTLY in the US CONSTITUTION or in ANY FEDERAL LAW is armed insurrection against the US Government allowed or encouraged? And why is this NOT listed as a reason for the 2nd Amendment.
I give you one FINAL chance to actually prove your point, instead of running and hiding behind opinions of someone so and so to "buttress" the purpose of the 2nd Amendment.
LAW and "opinion" are NOT the same thing.
10 U.S. Code 332 - Use of militia and armed forces to enforce Federal authority LII Legal Information Institute
This should sum it up for you....
DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA v. HELLER
The US Constitution is a limiting document. Limiting the government. Not the people.
Meaning....WE give permission to the government to do things. We do not permit the government to steamroll us with the use of unreasonable force.
The political left however, in its incredible hypocrisy, resists use of the military for purposes of national security on foreign soil, but will ascend to the use of force on US Citizens. Especially is the force is used to insure compliance with anything that fits THEIR agenda.
Indeed. Neither of the two links you provide empower the people to raise arms against the US Government.
In fact, 332 is there to make sure that the militia can be used to put down such an armed insurrection.
Got anymore unicorns for me, while you are at it?