TemplarKormac
Political Atheist
- Thread starter
- #141
And clearly you're engaging in a cherrypicking fallacy. Nobody has heard of the Oath of Geneva before, or cares.
That clearly shows how ignorant of history you are. Unlike you, I bother to educate myself before I open my mouth or type one single letter on my keyboard. Nobody hears of it because they don't bother to educate themselves on it.
The Oath of Geneva was supposed to be an update to the original Hippocratic Oath, beginning in 1948. Geez. Liberals are easily given to revisionist history, or outright ignoring it.
And so does the Bible. Numbers gives instructions on how to perform one with the ol' "bitter water" treatment. Exodus points out the penalty for killing a person is death, but the penality for killing a fetus is a cash fine.
Ahh the "Ordeal of the Bitter Water." I remember having this discussion with bfgrn back in June. Believe it or not, I've read the commentaries. This is what I told him:
"Notice that nowhere in those verses does it mention pregnancy, or abortion, or God causing an abortion. Drinking the concoction did not cause an abortion, nor did it cause a miscarriage. It would cause her great pain and her belly to bloat. Yet you attributed "thigh to fall away" as "to cause a miscarriage." Did it ever occur to you that the punishment could be that of barrenness? While "thigh" refers to the general area of the sexual organs, "to fall away" literally means that her sexual organs would cease to function and wither away, or atrophy.
What that verse refers to is a test to determine marital fidelity for a woman suspected of committing adultery, abortion is not among the punishments for a breach of the law, the punishment for guilt would be barrenness. If she did it secretly with another man without her husband's knowledge, it would be in the time of the Israelites, that a breach of the sotah law (1 of the 613 mosaic laws) would bring death upon her and her paramour as a punishment. That verse has nothing to do with abortion and more to do with assessing guilt in the the alleged commission of adultery."
The important fact that you miss here is that pregnancy is mentioned nowhere in the Numbers passage. I mean if you read the 2011 NIV version of the Bible, it mentions "miscarriage." But truthfully, that's the only version that mentions it and is widely acknowledged as a misinterpretation. It was a test for adultery only. See, this is what happens when you run into a Christian who knows his Bible. You can't win.
When the US Constitution was written, abortion was legal and common. The founders saw no problem with that.
The words "right to life" in the constitution seems to discredit this assertion. They believed life was not bestowed by men, but by divine providence, hence "unalienable."
So, I've got the Hippocratic Oath, the Bible and the Constitution. Plus, I can point out that nobody thinks specks are people. That definitely trumps your feeble cherrypicks.
Sure. You keep thinking that. I'm the one posting links and evidence, you're the one accusing me of cherrypicking. You don't have a sufficient counter to my argument, do you? Besides, what you did with the Bible is a textbook case of cherrypicking.
You really need to looking at some real history, instead of the PC version that the pro-lifers feed you.
LOL
I cannot believe you said that out loud! So this was the summation of your argument.