numan
What! Me Worry?
- Mar 23, 2013
- 2,125
- 241
Well, "ain't" is almost always shockingly sub-standard in the USA, but in England still is in vogue with the upper classes, particularly the country gentry, where it is strictly confined to the first person singular : "I ain't....", or "Ain't I...?"Kind of like "ain't" and "irregardless" and most uses of "per se".
The problem is that the correct negative contraction of the first person singular copula is "amn't", which is difficult to pronounce correctly. In England, both "amn't" and "aren't" are pronounced ahnt, as in the refined pronunciation of "aunt".
It is easy to see how "ain't" arose from ahnt, and why so many Americans commit the dreadful solecism of saying "Aren't I...?" for the negative contraction of "am I not?" "Are" is strictly a plural form, and should never be used with the first person singular. That usage is even worse -- much worse -- than "ain't".
If I said, "I am superbly educated, aren't I?" it would be true, but a grammatical howler. Only "am I not" or "ain't I" can be considered correct.
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