Zone1 If Jesus Is God In The Flesh Then How Could He Be His Son?

.
Mormons and Muslims both adhere to the concept that god would choose to conceive a son by having physical sexual lustful intercourse, if he chooses to do so - in order to conceive a son,, either - in a human woman or in another similar godlike entity.

and that a conception of a child conceived by god, by using god's creative power, creating the conception without sex

this very conception without sex as source of conception is not something he would have us to consider about himself doing or have done.

in other words,,, the god of both Mormonism and Islam would choose the method to physically have a lustful literal sexual intercourse with another being - to basically - have his creation to know and believe that this is the method the god would utilize to create the conception.


if you closely study and truly read the book of Mormon - the Quran and the Greek Septuagint and the Book of Jubilees - you will find that these books are a very similar style of writing and concept of explaining and their message. some of this is due to coincidence but mostly it is a deliberate attempt to invent and fabricate
Of course, with plagiarism, there is similarity.
 
.
Mormons and Muslims both adhere to the concept that god would choose to conceive a son by having physical sexual lustful intercourse, if he chooses to do so - in order to conceive a son,, either - in a human woman or in another similar godlike entity.

and that a conception of a child conceived by god, by using god's creative power, creating the conception without sex

this very conception without sex as source of conception is not something he would have us to consider about himself doing or have done.

in other words,,, the god of both Mormonism and Islam would choose the method to physically have a lustful literal sexual intercourse with another being - to basically - have his creation to know and believe that this is the method the god would utilize to create the conception.


if you closely study and truly read the book of Mormon - the Quran and the Greek Septuagint and the Book of Jubilees - you will find that these books are a very similar style of writing and concept of explaining and their message. some of this is due to coincidence but mostly it is a deliberate attempt to invent and fabricate
Although there have been those who have speculated within the church that God the Father had actual sexual relations with Mary, there absolutely nothing in our doctrine nor in our scriptures that say that this is so. So to accuse Mormons of believing that this is true is to believe that simply because some Mormons had that opinion means that the entire religion believes it. It is simply not true that all Mormons believe it and it is not part of our doctrine or scripture. How Mary was impregnated by God is not known and has not been revealed and it is a false notion to state that Mormons as a whole believe in this opinion of a few.
 
I understand, sorry for that

The fleshly body of Jesus required a Mother as well as a Father. Therefore, the Father and Mother of Jesus, according to the flesh, must have been associated together in the capacity of Husband and Wife; hence the Virgin Mary must have been, for the time being, the lawful wife of God the Father: we use the term lawful Wife, because it would be blasphemous in the highest degree to say that He overshadowed her or begat the Savior unlawfully.


(Orson Pratt, The Seer, page 158)

Joseph was Her Second Husband

Inasmuch as God was the first husband to her, it may be that He only gave her to be the wife of Joseph while in the mortal state, and that He intended after the resurrection to again take her as one of his own wives to raise up immortal spirits in eternity. (Orson Pratt, The Seer, page 158)

The man Joseph, the husband of Mary, did not, that we know of, have more than one wife, but Mary the wife of Joseph had another husband
.
(Brigham Young, Journal of Discourses, 11:268)
 
Last edited:
I understand, sorry for that

The fleshly body of Jesus required a Mother as well as a Father. Therefore, the Father and Mother of Jesus, according to the flesh, must have been associated together in the capacity of Husband and Wife; hence the Virgin Mary must have been, for the time being, the lawful wife of God the Father: we use the term lawful Wife, because it would be blasphemous in the highest degree to say that He overshadowed her or begat the Savior unlawfully.


(Orson Pratt, The Seer, page 158)

Joseph was Her Second Husband

Inasmuch as God was the first husband to her, it may be that He only gave her to be the wife of Joseph while in the mortal state, and that He intended after the resurrection to again take her as one of his own wives to raise up immortal spirits in eternity. (Orson Pratt, The Seer, page 158)

The man Joseph, the husband of Mary, did not, that we know of, have more than one wife, but Mary the wife of Joseph had another husband
.
(Brigham Young, Journal of Discourses, 11:268)
Yes, even though these men were high in the church, they are merely voicing their opinions. Not from any revelation.
 
His actual son I mean, not a son of the spirit.

The father, the son, the holy ghost. They are all the same thing.

God is God.

Jesus is gods physical manifestation on earth intended to appeal to man on teach him the way on a level he can understand. He is thought of as the son of god because he was born here and was a test for humans in how they treated him. God himself can't just show up, it's too much.

The holy spirit is also God. When people of faith feel the touch of God in their life, when their spirits are lifted, when they feel the comfort of God in their lives that is the holy spirit of god reaching out to them.
 

Forum List

Back
Top