SniperFire
Senior Member
That being said, the federal government did not force the farmer to grow wheat, nor did it force anyone to buy the farmer's wheat. All it did was tell him how much he coul grow.
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Said farmer was engaged in COMMERCE, as the wheat was the feedstock of his commercial endeavor. So the Fed justifed it based on the commerce clause.
This is different than forcing somebody NOT engaged in a commerce to participate for purposes of regulating him.
You are clueless.
3 fingers pointing back at you.
OP's case has zero to do with an Individual Mandate.
Wrong again. The individual mandate is being justified as a latent regulated commercial endeavor - just like just minding one's own business by growing wheat.
I showed you the difference. You probably can't grasp it.