theliq
Platinum Member
- Banned
- #441
WHICH MEANT PHILISTINE, DIP! The same Wikipedia says the Romans changed Judeah to Syria Palestina in 63 AD. So which is it, idiot? Acknowledge you are fulla shit.Roudy -
The events predating Roman invasion have to do with Philistine which you conveniently. LIED when you said it "they" can be traced to Ashdod blah blah blah. "THEY" the PHILISTINES are not Arab Palestinians, who have no history in Ashdod or anything in ancient Israel....STUPIDO.
No, they don't refer to Philistines.
And again....
""The earliest occurrence of this name in a Greek text is in the mid-fifth century b.c., Histories of Herodotus, where it is applied to the area of the Levant between Phoenicia and Egypt."..."The first known occurrence of the Greek word Palaistine is in the Histories of Herodotus, written near the mid-fifth century B.C. Palaistine Syria, or simply Palaistine, is applied to what may be identified as the southern part of Syria, comprising the region between Phoenicia and Egypt. Although some of Herodotus' references to Palestine are compatible with a narrow definition of the coastal strip of the Land of Israel, it is clear that Herodotus does call the "whole land by the name of the coastal strip."..."It is believed that Herodotus visited Palestine in the fifth decade of the fifth century B.C.".
btw. "Ignorant" is not a noun. It's an adjective.
And again:
In 63*BCE the Roman general Pompey conquered Jerusalem and made the Jewish kingdom a client of Rome. In 4039, Herod the Great was appointed King of the Jews by the Roman Senate, and in 6*CE the last ethnarch of Judea was deposed by the emperor Augustus and his territories were combined with Idumea and Samaria and annexed as Iudaea Province under direct Roman administration.[70] The name Judea (Iudaea) was removed after the revolt of Simon Bar Kochba in 135*CE, after which the area was called Syria Palaestina, (Greek: Παλαιστίνη, Palaistinē; Latin: Palaestina.)
Bigger IDIOT