The Ancient Black Hebrews

[Indeependent]

I guess you don't get it that Yaakov's children were already included in the Blessings God gave to Avraham, Yitzchak and Taakov; the Egyptions were not.
The Egyptians were only blessed due to Yaakov when he was alive.

 

[Asclepias]

I guess you don't get it that Yaakov's children were already included in the Blessings God gave to Avraham, Yitzchak and Taakov; the Egyptions were not.
The Egyptians were only blessed due to Yaakov when he was alive.

Are you saying it was a joyous occasion for the Hebrews but not for the Egyptians? Your contention is that the Canaanites knew Jacob was a Hebrew but the Hebrews were going to throw a party since Jacob died? Please provide some proof for such a silly claim.

 

[Asclepias]

I guess you don't get it that Yaakov's children were already included in the Blessings God gave to Avraham, Yitzchak and Taakov; the Egyptions were not.
The Egyptians were only blessed due to Yaakov when he was alive.

I guess you were wrong because it says right here in verse 10 that Joseph was mourning too.

"And they came to the threshing floor of Atad, which is beyond the Jordan, and there they mourned with a great and very sore lamentation; and he made a mourning for his father seven days."

Since we got your silly little claim out of the way by proving both the Hebrews and the Egyptians were mourning I have to reask the question. Why did the Canaanites only mention that the Egyptians were mourning? Why didnt they at least say both groups were mourning?

 

[JQPublic1]

After reading your misogynistic drivel I don't feel "stupid" at all. I feel vindicated. Are you quoting the TNK? And what if a man disregards that 30 day stipulation/ What are the consequences, if any?

The man receives a public lashing and pays a fine to the court and is forbidden from having relations with the woman.

I doubt if such a law could be enforceable, or, the breaking of it detected.

You have no idea of the communal bonds in an Orthodox Jewish community.
There was a time when the Sanhedrin existed when punishments were meted out.
Today you don't receive honors during services.

Given the biblical accounts of wanton debauchery among the Jews per Jeremiah 5-7, breaking that 30 day "cooling off" period before ravishing captive slave girls was the least concern of the Sanhedrin and the Priests.

I get it...you don't understand how sensitive Jews are required to be and how even the tinyest flaw is considered by God.
A Jew who acts out of accordance with God's Torah is considered to have committed an act of adultery by following the ways of a false god.
Non-Jews have to commit outright murder, rape and beastiality to upset God because God's expectations are much lower for them.

I am not going to deny that the Hebrews who wrote the bible would promote the followers of their faith as the "chosen" people. I will also go so far as to say the Blacks who wrote the Torah and redacted the Mishna were inclusive of ALL who would believe regardless of race. But in the later centuries,as more Caucasian and "near white" proselytes embraced Hebraic monotheism, they usurped it. But they usurpers could not fore see the technological advancements in DNA that would one day uncover the hidden Black African origins of the Hebrew.

The Israelites of the Exodus era were likely a cosmopolitan group comprised of various racial characteristics. There must have been considerable sexual dalliances between them and the children of Ham and others. and that some of that mixing occurred before they were slaves. Hence:

Except for their language, clothing, and names, many of the children of Israel had become assimilated into the social and cultural environment of their Egyptian neighbors, and they were the ones to arouse the wrath of the Egyptians. Only the children of Levi were, therefore, spared the slavery and oppression which the Egyptians imposed upon the rest of Israel.

Israel's Enslavement

 

[Asclepias]

Moving on to the New Testament we see another instance were a supposedly white guy is mistaken for a black skinned man from the Ham lineage of Egypt. Paul is mistaken for a false Egyptian prophet who led an uprising sometime between 52-58 CE

Bible Gateway passage: Acts 21:37-39 - King James Version

"37 And as Paul was to be led into the castle, he said unto the chief captain, May I speak unto thee? Who said, Canst thou speak Greek?

38 Art not thou that Egyptian, which before these days madest an uproar, and leddest out into the wilderness four thousand men that were murderers?

39 But Paul said, I am a man which am a Jew of Tarsus, a city in Cilicia, a citizen of no mean city: and, I beseech thee, suffer me to speak unto the people."

 

[JQPublic1]

To SMART Jews it makes sense but to Schlemiels like you it doesn't. Moses is said to have written the first five books of the Bible, RIGHT? If so, how can the Torah (Pentateuch) be attributed to Abraham (Hebrews) who came 400 +years before Moses?

They were written my G-d at first, after the sin of the golden Calf, Moses broke those..He wrote the second himself as dedicated to him by G-d the Torah was around before Moses, before Abraham

Ok, Schlemiel, Where WAS theTorah before Moses? what evidence do you have that the Tora existed before Moses?

G-ds law existed before the Hebrews..Jews were created for Torah, not the other way around..We were just studying this with the Rabbi few months back..I'll look it up when i have time

You can't "look it up" because the Torah didn't exist before Moses wrote it. You can say it existed in the mind of God but,of course, that can't be proven.

Your black Hebrew are G-d in your mind ...That's how sad you guys are. Idol worshiper..Moses Isn't G-d

No,you are just making desperate accusations. Moses wasn't God but he was the vehicle by which HaShem gave the world the centerpiece of Man's relevancy in the Creation.. Perhaps your confusion lies in your lackluster applications of Judaism in your daily life.

There is an Oral Torah. It is called the Mishna. The trouble is, the Mishna does NOT precede Moses. The Mishna is supposedly a redaction of an "oral Torah" comprised of unwritten mysteries revealed by HaShem (God) to Moses . Moses is still the ONLY human connection to the dissemination of BOTH the Torah AND the Mishna.

 

[Indeependent]

I guess you don't get it that Yaakov's children were already included in the Blessings God gave to Avraham, Yitzchak and Taakov; the Egyptions were not.
The Egyptians were only blessed due to Yaakov when he was alive.

I guess you were wrong because it says right here in verse 10 that Joseph was mourning too.

"And they came to the threshing floor of Atad, which is beyond the Jordan, and there they mourned with a great and very sore lamentation; and he made a mourning for his father seven days."

Since we got your silly little claim out of the way by proving both the Hebrews and the Egyptians were mourning I have to reask the question. Why did the Canaanites only mention that the Egyptians were mourning? Why didnt they at least say both groups were mourning?

Yosef sat Shiva and mourned but he didn't experience a GREAT mourning.
God does not insert an adjective for no reason.

 

[Indeependent]

They were written my G-d at first, after the sin of the golden Calf, Moses broke those..He wrote the second himself as dedicated to him by G-d the Torah was around before Moses, before Abraham

Ok, Schlemiel, Where WAS theTorah before Moses? what evidence do you have that the Tora existed before Moses?

G-ds law existed before the Hebrews..Jews were created for Torah, not the other way around..We were just studying this with the Rabbi few months back..I'll look it up when i have time

You can't "look it up" because the Torah didn't exist before Moses wrote it. You can say it existed in the mind of God but,of course, that can't be proven.

Your black Hebrew are G-d in your mind ...That's how sad you guys are. Idol worshiper..Moses Isn't G-d

No,you are just making desperate accusations. Moses wasn't God but he was the vehicle by which HaShem gave the world the centerpiece of Man's relevancy in the Creation.. Perhaps your confusion lies in your lackluster applications of Judaism in your daily life.

There is an Oral Torah. It is called the Mishna. The trouble is, the Mishna does NOT precede Moses. The Mishna is supposedly a redaction of an "oral Torah" comprised of unwritten mysteries revealed by HaShem (God) to Moses . Moses is still the ONLY human connection to the dissemination of BOTH the Torah AND the Mishna.

You are correct but there must be an acceptable authority to maintain a tradition.

 

[Asclepias]

I guess you don't get it that Yaakov's children were already included in the Blessings God gave to Avraham, Yitzchak and Taakov; the Egyptions were not.
The Egyptians were only blessed due to Yaakov when he was alive.

I guess you were wrong because it says right here in verse 10 that Joseph was mourning too.

"And they came to the threshing floor of Atad, which is beyond the Jordan, and there they mourned with a great and very sore lamentation; and he made a mourning for his father seven days."

Since we got your silly little claim out of the way by proving both the Hebrews and the Egyptians were mourning I have to reask the question. Why did the Canaanites only mention that the Egyptians were mourning? Why didnt they at least say both groups were mourning?

Yosef sat Shiva and mourned but he didn't experience a GREAT mourning.
God does not insert an adjective for no reason.

Now your claim is that the Egyptians felt worse than his own son? God didnt insert the adjective nor did he say "great".. The Canaanites used the term "grievous". Your conjecture fails to pass the test.

11 And when the inhabitants of the land, the Canaanites, saw the mourning in the floor of Atad, they said, This is a grievous mourning to the Egyptians: wherefore the name of it was called Abelmizraim, which is beyond Jordan."

Maybe you will have better luck explaining why god decided turning the hand of Moses white was more impressive than turning a stick into a snake? You want to give that one a try?

 

[Indeependent]

I guess you don't get it that Yaakov's children were already included in the Blessings God gave to Avraham, Yitzchak and Taakov; the Egyptions were not.
The Egyptians were only blessed due to Yaakov when he was alive.

I guess you were wrong because it says right here in verse 10 that Joseph was mourning too.

"And they came to the threshing floor of Atad, which is beyond the Jordan, and there they mourned with a great and very sore lamentation; and he made a mourning for his father seven days."

Since we got your silly little claim out of the way by proving both the Hebrews and the Egyptians were mourning I have to reask the question. Why did the Canaanites only mention that the Egyptians were mourning? Why didnt they at least say both groups were mourning?

Yosef sat Shiva and mourned but he didn't experience a GREAT mourning.
God does not insert an adjective for no reason.

Now your claim is that the Egyptians felt worse than his own son? God didnt insert the adjective nor did he say "great".. The Canaanites used the term "grievous". Your conjecture fails to pass the test.

11 And when the inhabitants of the land, the Canaanites, saw the mourning in the floor of Atad, they said, This is a grievous mourning to the Egyptians: wherefore the name of it was called Abelmizraim, which is beyond Jordan."

Maybe you will have better luck explaining why god decided turning the hand of Moses white was more impressive than turning a stick into a snake? You want to give that one a try?

Let's try a different angle...
Do you think there a difference between when God says "mourning" in one verse and says "great mourning" in a different verse?

 

[Asclepias]

I guess you don't get it that Yaakov's children were already included in the Blessings God gave to Avraham, Yitzchak and Taakov; the Egyptions were not.
The Egyptians were only blessed due to Yaakov when he was alive.

I guess you were wrong because it says right here in verse 10 that Joseph was mourning too.

"And they came to the threshing floor of Atad, which is beyond the Jordan, and there they mourned with a great and very sore lamentation; and he made a mourning for his father seven days."

Since we got your silly little claim out of the way by proving both the Hebrews and the Egyptians were mourning I have to reask the question. Why did the Canaanites only mention that the Egyptians were mourning? Why didnt they at least say both groups were mourning?

Yosef sat Shiva and mourned but he didn't experience a GREAT mourning.
God does not insert an adjective for no reason.

Now your claim is that the Egyptians felt worse than his own son? God didnt insert the adjective nor did he say "great".. The Canaanites used the term "grievous". Your conjecture fails to pass the test.

11 And when the inhabitants of the land, the Canaanites, saw the mourning in the floor of Atad, they said, This is a grievous mourning to the Egyptians: wherefore the name of it was called Abelmizraim, which is beyond Jordan."

Maybe you will have better luck explaining why god decided turning the hand of Moses white was more impressive than turning a stick into a snake? You want to give that one a try?

Let's try a different angle...
Do you think there a difference between when God says "mourning" in one verse and says "great mourning" in a different verse?

Why would we try a different angle with the same false information? Thats pretty dumb. God didnt say it. The Canaanites are the ones that remarked on it.

 

[Indeependent]

I guess you don't get it that Yaakov's children were already included in the Blessings God gave to Avraham, Yitzchak and Taakov; the Egyptions were not.
The Egyptians were only blessed due to Yaakov when he was alive.

I guess you were wrong because it says right here in verse 10 that Joseph was mourning too.

"And they came to the threshing floor of Atad, which is beyond the Jordan, and there they mourned with a great and very sore lamentation; and he made a mourning for his father seven days."

Since we got your silly little claim out of the way by proving both the Hebrews and the Egyptians were mourning I have to reask the question. Why did the Canaanites only mention that the Egyptians were mourning? Why didnt they at least say both groups were mourning?

Yosef sat Shiva and mourned but he didn't experience a GREAT mourning.
God does not insert an adjective for no reason.

Now your claim is that the Egyptians felt worse than his own son? God didnt insert the adjective nor did he say "great".. The Canaanites used the term "grievous". Your conjecture fails to pass the test.

11 And when the inhabitants of the land, the Canaanites, saw the mourning in the floor of Atad, they said, This is a grievous mourning to the Egyptians: wherefore the name of it was called Abelmizraim, which is beyond Jordan."

Maybe you will have better luck explaining why god decided turning the hand of Moses white was more impressive than turning a stick into a snake? You want to give that one a try?

Let's try a different angle...
Do you think there a difference between when God says "mourning" in one verse and says "great mourning" in a different verse?

Why would we try a different angle with the same false information? Thats pretty dumb. God didnt say it. The Canaanites are the ones that remarked on it.

Who's relating what they said?
In other words, from where did these words of the Torah originate?

 

[Asclepias]

I guess you were wrong because it says right here in verse 10 that Joseph was mourning too.

"And they came to the threshing floor of Atad, which is beyond the Jordan, and there they mourned with a great and very sore lamentation; and he made a mourning for his father seven days."

Since we got your silly little claim out of the way by proving both the Hebrews and the Egyptians were mourning I have to reask the question. Why did the Canaanites only mention that the Egyptians were mourning? Why didnt they at least say both groups were mourning?

Yosef sat Shiva and mourned but he didn't experience a GREAT mourning.
God does not insert an adjective for no reason.

Now your claim is that the Egyptians felt worse than his own son? God didnt insert the adjective nor did he say "great".. The Canaanites used the term "grievous". Your conjecture fails to pass the test.

11 And when the inhabitants of the land, the Canaanites, saw the mourning in the floor of Atad, they said, This is a grievous mourning to the Egyptians: wherefore the name of it was called Abelmizraim, which is beyond Jordan."

Maybe you will have better luck explaining why god decided turning the hand of Moses white was more impressive than turning a stick into a snake? You want to give that one a try?

Let's try a different angle...
Do you think there a difference between when God says "mourning" in one verse and says "great mourning" in a different verse?

Why would we try a different angle with the same false information? Thats pretty dumb. God didnt say it. The Canaanites are the ones that remarked on it.

Who's relating what they said?
In other words, from where did these words of the Torah originate?

The words originated from the Canaanites. I just bolded where it plainly says it was what the Canaanites said and not god. If god had said the words then the words would not have been attributed to the Canaanites.

 

[Indeependent]

Yosef sat Shiva and mourned but he didn't experience a GREAT mourning.
God does not insert an adjective for no reason.

Now your claim is that the Egyptians felt worse than his own son? God didnt insert the adjective nor did he say "great".. The Canaanites used the term "grievous". Your conjecture fails to pass the test.

11 And when the inhabitants of the land, the Canaanites, saw the mourning in the floor of Atad, they said, This is a grievous mourning to the Egyptians: wherefore the name of it was called Abelmizraim, which is beyond Jordan."

Maybe you will have better luck explaining why god decided turning the hand of Moses white was more impressive than turning a stick into a snake? You want to give that one a try?

Let's try a different angle...
Do you think there a difference between when God says "mourning" in one verse and says "great mourning" in a different verse?

Why would we try a different angle with the same false information? Thats pretty dumb. God didnt say it. The Canaanites are the ones that remarked on it.

Who's relating what they said?
In other words, from where did these words of the Torah originate?

The words originated from the Canaanites. I just bolded where it plainly says it was what the Canaanites said and not god. If god had said the words then the words would not have been attributed to the Canaanites.

So you believe the Torah was not dictated to Moshe by God.

 

[JQPublic1]

Ok, Schlemiel, Where WAS theTorah before Moses? what evidence do you have that the Tora existed before Moses?

G-ds law existed before the Hebrews..Jews were created for Torah, not the other way around..We were just studying this with the Rabbi few months back..I'll look it up when i have time

You can't "look it up" because the Torah didn't exist before Moses wrote it. You can say it existed in the mind of God but,of course, that can't be proven.

Your black Hebrew are G-d in your mind ...That's how sad you guys are. Idol worshiper..Moses Isn't G-d

No,you are just making desperate accusations. Moses wasn't God but he was the vehicle by which HaShem gave the world the centerpiece of Man's relevancy in the Creation.. Perhaps your confusion lies in your lackluster applications of Judaism in your daily life.

There is an Oral Torah. It is called the Mishna. The trouble is, the Mishna does NOT precede Moses. The Mishna is supposedly a redaction of an "oral Torah" comprised of unwritten mysteries revealed by HaShem (God) to Moses . Moses is still the ONLY human connection to the dissemination of BOTH the Torah AND the Mishna.

You are correct but there must be an acceptable authority to maintain a tradition.

I know of no greater authority than HaShem; but, on the earthly plain, in the material world, the Levites,who were not enslaved, would have to be credited as a lessor authority. And they were not of Judah, they were, like Moses, from the tribe of Levi…thus, not Jews.

 

[Asclepias]

Now your claim is that the Egyptians felt worse than his own son? God didnt insert the adjective nor did he say "great".. The Canaanites used the term "grievous". Your conjecture fails to pass the test.

11 And when the inhabitants of the land, the Canaanites, saw the mourning in the floor of Atad, they said, This is a grievous mourning to the Egyptians: wherefore the name of it was called Abelmizraim, which is beyond Jordan."

Maybe you will have better luck explaining why god decided turning the hand of Moses white was more impressive than turning a stick into a snake? You want to give that one a try?

Let's try a different angle...
Do you think there a difference between when God says "mourning" in one verse and says "great mourning" in a different verse?

Why would we try a different angle with the same false information? Thats pretty dumb. God didnt say it. The Canaanites are the ones that remarked on it.

Who's relating what they said?
In other words, from where did these words of the Torah originate?

The words originated from the Canaanites. I just bolded where it plainly says it was what the Canaanites said and not god. If god had said the words then the words would not have been attributed to the Canaanites.

So you believe the Torah was not dictated to Moshe by God.

I believe that if god had said what you claim then the word "grievous" would not have been attributed to the Canaanites. I'm curious as to why you insist on claiming god said it when its been proven beyond a doubt that the Canaanites are the ones that said it? Do you think everyone has a bad grasp of reading comprehension like you do?

 

[Indeependent]

G-ds law existed before the Hebrews..Jews were created for Torah, not the other way around..We were just studying this with the Rabbi few months back..I'll look it up when i have time

You can't "look it up" because the Torah didn't exist before Moses wrote it. You can say it existed in the mind of God but,of course, that can't be proven.

Your black Hebrew are G-d in your mind ...That's how sad you guys are. Idol worshiper..Moses Isn't G-d

No,you are just making desperate accusations. Moses wasn't God but he was the vehicle by which HaShem gave the world the centerpiece of Man's relevancy in the Creation.. Perhaps your confusion lies in your lackluster applications of Judaism in your daily life.

There is an Oral Torah. It is called the Mishna. The trouble is, the Mishna does NOT precede Moses. The Mishna is supposedly a redaction of an "oral Torah" comprised of unwritten mysteries revealed by HaShem (God) to Moses . Moses is still the ONLY human connection to the dissemination of BOTH the Torah AND the Mishna.

You are correct but there must be an acceptable authority to maintain a tradition.

I know of no greater authority than HaShem; but, on the earthly plain, in the material world, the Levites,who were not enslaved, would have to be credited as a lessor authority. And they were not of Judah, they were, like Moses, from the tribe of Levi…thus, not Jews.

And Moshe received the Written & Oral Torahs from God and what's your point again (no sarcasm intended)?

BTW, can you guess why a descendant of Levi was stated by God to be the most "humble" man who ever lived?
Think in terms of Levi.

 

[Indeependent]

Let's try a different angle...
Do you think there a difference between when God says "mourning" in one verse and says "great mourning" in a different verse?

Why would we try a different angle with the same false information? Thats pretty dumb. God didnt say it. The Canaanites are the ones that remarked on it.

Who's relating what they said?
In other words, from where did these words of the Torah originate?

The words originated from the Canaanites. I just bolded where it plainly says it was what the Canaanites said and not god. If god had said the words then the words would not have been attributed to the Canaanites.

So you believe the Torah was not dictated to Moshe by God.

I believe that if god had said what you claim then the word "grievous" would not have been attributed to the Canaanites. I'm curious as to why you insist on claiming god said it when its been proven beyond a doubt that the Canaanites are the ones that said it? Do you think everyone has a bad grasp of reading comprehension like you do?

The Torah is the blueprint of Creation.
Each and every letter, including the spaces, serves a purpose.
God is never rhetorical.

 

[Asclepias]

Why would we try a different angle with the same false information? Thats pretty dumb. God didnt say it. The Canaanites are the ones that remarked on it.

Who's relating what they said?
In other words, from where did these words of the Torah originate?

The words originated from the Canaanites. I just bolded where it plainly says it was what the Canaanites said and not god. If god had said the words then the words would not have been attributed to the Canaanites.

So you believe the Torah was not dictated to Moshe by God.

I believe that if god had said what you claim then the word "grievous" would not have been attributed to the Canaanites. I'm curious as to why you insist on claiming god said it when its been proven beyond a doubt that the Canaanites are the ones that said it? Do you think everyone has a bad grasp of reading comprehension like you do?

The Torah is the blueprint of Creation.
Each and every letter, including the spaces, serves a purpose.
God is never rhetorical.

That may or may not be true depending on what you believe. The point is that the word was attributed to the Canaanites uttering it not god. Obviously you are trying to deflect for some reason. Maybe its your pride?

 

[JQPublic1]

You can't "look it up" because the Torah didn't exist before Moses wrote it. You can say it existed in the mind of God but,of course, that can't be proven.

Your black Hebrew are G-d in your mind ...That's how sad you guys are. Idol worshiper..Moses Isn't G-d

No,you are just making desperate accusations. Moses wasn't God but he was the vehicle by which HaShem gave the world the centerpiece of Man's relevancy in the Creation.. Perhaps your confusion lies in your lackluster applications of Judaism in your daily life.

There is an Oral Torah. It is called the Mishna. The trouble is, the Mishna does NOT precede Moses. The Mishna is supposedly a redaction of an "oral Torah" comprised of unwritten mysteries revealed by HaShem (God) to Moses . Moses is still the ONLY human connection to the dissemination of BOTH the Torah AND the Mishna.

You are correct but there must be an acceptable authority to maintain a tradition.

I know of no greater authority than HaShem; but, on the earthly plain, in the material world, the Levites,who were not enslaved, would have to be credited as a lessor authority. And they were not of Judah, they were, like Moses, from the tribe of Levi…thus, not Jews.

And Moshe received the Written & Oral Torahs from God and what's your point again (no sarcasm intended)?

BTW, can you guess why a descendant of Levi was stated by God to be the most "humble" man who ever lived?
Think in terms of Levi.

I was attempting to address your "acceptable authority to maintain a tradition," comment. Perhaps you should clarify who it is that you see as that authority before I comment further.