martybegan
Diamond Member
- Apr 5, 2010
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Are people who kill themselves less dead than people who are killed by others. Because, frankly, my neighbor who shot himself, he looked pretty dead to me at his funeral. (Although the undertaker did a nice job patching up the hole...)
The reason it should not be included is that when usually stated, it is made to imply someone being accidentally shot, the classic "I shot my son by the fridge because i thought he was a burglar" story. The people who often use this study use it to make it appear you are going to shoot your cousin ed well before you shoot an intruder. Using suicides to bolster the ratio is intellectually dishonest if you intend to use the numbers this way.
Where is it "implied" that a sucide is anything but a suicide? You might INFER that, but no one IMPLIED that.
The point is, for every home intruder killed, you had 39 suicides, 3 domestic murders and 1 accident in the home, according to Kellerman.
But the Gun Industry markets it product like there is a hoarde of these criminals out there that you need protection from... and your gun is the only thing keeping you safe.
No, according to kellerman you had these happen in THE COUNTY he did the study. It did not eliminate ones that took place outside the home. It did not eliminate criminally owned guns, and it did not eliminate crimes committed by guns owned by someone else.
One other thing is that during the period there were 347 non gun suicides, and 4 non gun self defense homicides. Using that ratio you were 87 times more likely to kill yourself than to defend yourself without a gun during the time period.....
So i guess we need to ban hands/ropes/knives/bats/clubs etc??