bripat9643
Diamond Member
- Apr 1, 2011
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ROFL...If no third parties imposes their own terms on the transaction, then it's voluntary. There is no third party involved in the transaction I described. The city is a third party when it comes to paying property taxes.
What is the difference between:
1) a fee from a first party that is required property tax to pay for police in which the third party is the city funding the 2nd party which is the police and
2) a fee from a first party that is required homeowner's fee to pay for private police in which the third party is the property owner/property owner's association funding the 2nd party which is the private police
Both are voluntary only at the point of purchase. Both involve at least three parties. Both are required to have the service. Both are required for the sale.
There is no "point of purchase" in the case of property taxes. Furthermore, the city often changes the terms of the deal after the fact. Property taxes are often increased, and anyone who didn't vote for the increase didn't agree to it.
There's no way to get to the proposition that property taxes are voluntary via logic.
Furthermore, association fees are commonly used to pay for maintenance of the common areas and sometimes for security. They don't pay for fire or police protection. However, I suppose they could if people weren't already forced to pay for these things via taxation.
What you are arguing is that there is no difference between driving into a car wash and getting your windshield cleaned and driving into the ghetto and some kid wiping a dirty rag across your windshield when you stop at an intersection and then demanding that you pay him. You're arguing that in both cases it's payment for services rendered, so there is "no difference."