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This is his view on 19th century U.S. historyYeah and also someone with no real understanding of American history or even world history.you're having a discussion with someone who actually believes slaves in the U.S. had citizenship rights lol
Your posts reveal a lack of understanding of simple English.
I stated blacks (persons) were natural born citizens after 1808 when the general Government of the Union assumed control over entry into the Union. Why do right wingers have such lousy comprehension but want to be considered Right? Just being on the right wing only works in right wing fantasy.you're having a discussion with someone who actually believes slaves in the U.S. had citizenship rights lolI did not say slavery was right. Apparently you think you're debating someone else.You are even more of a simpleton. Lousy laws do not make a right.
Yours is worse. Simply being on the right wing does not mean you are Right. Fantasy much?Yeah and also someone with no real understanding of American history or even world history.you're having a discussion with someone who actually believes slaves in the U.S. had citizenship rights lol
I am citing Constitutional law; only right wingers have a problem with it; go figure.This is his view on 19th century U.S. historyYeah and also someone with no real understanding of American history or even world history.you're having a discussion with someone who actually believes slaves in the U.S. had citizenship rights lol
"Anyone born in the US after 1808 was a citizen by natural born birth because that is when the general Government of the Union assumed supremacy over entry into the Union. Women should have also had the franchise by birth because our federal Constitution and Bill of Rights are both gender and race neutral. "
all I can do is laugh at your limited knowledge of 19th century U.S. historyThey should have been natural born citizens after 1808. Entry into the Union was a federal matter then.they didn't have voting rights more did they have a citizenshipThey did not have voting rights at the time, and neither did women.Request number 2 link where slaves in the U.S had voting rights.Anyone born in the US after 1808 was a citizen by natural born birth because that is when the general Government of the Union assumed supremacy over entry into the Union.link where slaves in the U.S had voting rights.They were citizens after 1808. The North was emancipating their slave population.did slaves have voting rights before 1866?Slaves were not 3/5 of anything at the timeRepresentation in the house of representatives3/5 of what?It's really easy to understand instead of allowing the slaveholding state unbalanced representation through slaves the actual representation number for slaves was reduced to 3/5thOne day i will understand you, then promptly jumpYou know how the lying propagandists love to claim that the Founders didn't acknowledge the humanity of the slaves, and counted them as only 3/5 of a person for the census?
Of course, the truth is that the anti-slavers knew that the slave owners wanted to use the numbers to increase their political power in the Congress, and the abolitionists knew that if they did, slavery would never be abolished. So....the 3/5 compromise to get the union formed.
"Just three years after ratification, in the census of 1790, the numbers were determined according to the Constitution proscription of “adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years…three-fifths of all other Persons.”
Rather than this representing racial animus, this compromise prevented the South from having the representation to always outvote the North on the issue of slavery.
In 1790, the slave population of South Carolina was 77% of the white population. By 1820, slaves outnumbered whites, 265,000 to 237,000, and by 1860, 412,000 to 291,000. Georgia and Virginia, similarly."
Full text of "Heads of families at the first census of the United States taken in the year 1790 .."
Well......the Democrats are using the same plan, but now that they own the judiciary, they get their way:
"Judges halt plan to exclude unauthorized immigrants from count used to award seats in Congress"
Judges halt plan to exclude unauthorized immigrants from count used to award seats in Congress
Since the first census was taken, the U.S. has counted non-citizens for the purposes of awarding seats in the House of Representatives.www.cbsnews.com
Why was it necessary......Obama just told them to go and vote: "When you vote, you're a citizen yourself."
They didn't get citizenship until after 1866 with the 1st civil rights act of 1866
The Naturalization Act of 1790 limited naturalization (and citizenship) to "free white persons," ruling out slaves and free blacks, as well.
Slaves did not have rights, Free blacks in the north had some rights within some states until dread scott decision of 1857 that specifically set forth that African slaves (and their descendants) could never be citizens and had no citizenship rights.
OK so you said "a right" my point still stands. And I bet you edited.Neither did I. You comprehension skills are lacking.
You wish.Your posts reveal a lack of understanding of simple English.
Yeah my American English is too complicated for you I guess.
No fuck you aren'tI am citing Constitutional law; only right wingers have a problem with it; go figure.This is his view on 19th century U.S. historyYeah and also someone with no real understanding of American history or even world history.you're having a discussion with someone who actually believes slaves in the U.S. had citizenship rights lol
"Anyone born in the US after 1808 was a citizen by natural born birth because that is when the general Government of the Union assumed supremacy over entry into the Union. Women should have also had the franchise by birth because our federal Constitution and Bill of Rights are both gender and race neutral. "
Right wingers have a problem being legal to the laws but like to blame the less fortunate.all I can do is laugh at your limited knowledge of 19th century U.S. historyThey should have been natural born citizens after 1808. Entry into the Union was a federal matter then.they didn't have voting rights more did they have a citizenshipThey did not have voting rights at the time, and neither did women.Request number 2 link where slaves in the U.S had voting rights.Anyone born in the US after 1808 was a citizen by natural born birth because that is when the general Government of the Union assumed supremacy over entry into the Union.link where slaves in the U.S had voting rights.They were citizens after 1808. The North was emancipating their slave population.did slaves have voting rights before 1866?Slaves were not 3/5 of anything at the timeRepresentation in the house of representatives3/5 of what?It's really easy to understand instead of allowing the slaveholding state unbalanced representation through slaves the actual representation number for slaves was reduced to 3/5thOne day i will understand you, then promptly jumpYou know how the lying propagandists love to claim that the Founders didn't acknowledge the humanity of the slaves, and counted them as only 3/5 of a person for the census?
Of course, the truth is that the anti-slavers knew that the slave owners wanted to use the numbers to increase their political power in the Congress, and the abolitionists knew that if they did, slavery would never be abolished. So....the 3/5 compromise to get the union formed.
"Just three years after ratification, in the census of 1790, the numbers were determined according to the Constitution proscription of “adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years…three-fifths of all other Persons.”
Rather than this representing racial animus, this compromise prevented the South from having the representation to always outvote the North on the issue of slavery.
In 1790, the slave population of South Carolina was 77% of the white population. By 1820, slaves outnumbered whites, 265,000 to 237,000, and by 1860, 412,000 to 291,000. Georgia and Virginia, similarly."
Full text of "Heads of families at the first census of the United States taken in the year 1790 .."
Well......the Democrats are using the same plan, but now that they own the judiciary, they get their way:
"Judges halt plan to exclude unauthorized immigrants from count used to award seats in Congress"
Judges halt plan to exclude unauthorized immigrants from count used to award seats in Congress
Since the first census was taken, the U.S. has counted non-citizens for the purposes of awarding seats in the House of Representatives.
Why was it necessary......Obama just told them to go and vote: "When you vote, you're a citizen yourself."
They didn't get citizenship until after 1866 with the 1st civil rights act of 1866
The Naturalization Act of 1790 limited naturalization (and citizenship) to "free white persons," ruling out slaves and free blacks, as well.
Slaves did not have rights, Free blacks in the north had some rights within some states until dread scott decision of 1857 that specifically set forth that African slaves (and their descendants) could never be citizens and had no citizenship rights.
They should have would have could have but didn't have any citizenship until after the civil rights act of 1866
I never said I was on the 'right wing' Dufus.Yours is worse. Simply being on the right wing does not mean you are Right. Fantasy much?
You only prove your lack of comprehension. Right in this case and context does not imply any legal right only moral right.OK so you said "a right" my point still stands. And I bet you edited.Neither did I. You comprehension skills are lacking.
Yes fuck, I am.No fuck you aren'tI am citing Constitutional law; only right wingers have a problem with it; go figure.This is his view on 19th century U.S. historyYeah and also someone with no real understanding of American history or even world history.you're having a discussion with someone who actually believes slaves in the U.S. had citizenship rights lol
"Anyone born in the US after 1808 was a citizen by natural born birth because that is when the general Government of the Union assumed supremacy over entry into the Union. Women should have also had the franchise by birth because our federal Constitution and Bill of Rights are both gender and race neutral. "
Left wingers have a problem being legal to the laws but like to blame the less fortunate.Right wingers have a problem being legal to the laws but like to blame the less fortunate.
You can't be on the left with your attitude.I never said I was on the 'right wing' Dufus.Yours is worse. Simply being on the right wing does not mean you are Right. Fantasy much?
I have no problem being legal to the laws and am on the left.Left wingers have a problem being legal to the laws but like to blame the less fortunate.Right wingers have a problem being legal to the laws but like to blame the less fortunate.
What? Are you drunk or something? Your posts are getting ridiculous.You only prove your lack of comprehension. Right in this case and context does not imply any legal right only moral right.
Your comprehension is even more, rediculus.What? Are you drunk or something? Your posts are getting ridiculous.You only prove your lack of comprehension. Right in this case and context does not imply any legal right only moral right.
You can't be on the left with your attitude.
Your concession is acceptedRight wingers have a problem being legal to the laws but like to blame the less fortunate.all I can do is laugh at your limited knowledge of 19th century U.S. historyThey should have been natural born citizens after 1808. Entry into the Union was a federal matter then.they didn't have voting rights more did they have a citizenshipThey did not have voting rights at the time, and neither did women.Request number 2 link where slaves in the U.S had voting rights.Anyone born in the US after 1808 was a citizen by natural born birth because that is when the general Government of the Union assumed supremacy over entry into the Union.link where slaves in the U.S had voting rights.They were citizens after 1808. The North was emancipating their slave population.did slaves have voting rights before 1866?Slaves were not 3/5 of anything at the timeRepresentation in the house of representatives3/5 of what?It's really easy to understand instead of allowing the slaveholding state unbalanced representation through slaves the actual representation number for slaves was reduced to 3/5thOne day i will understand you, then promptly jumpYou know how the lying propagandists love to claim that the Founders didn't acknowledge the humanity of the slaves, and counted them as only 3/5 of a person for the census?
Of course, the truth is that the anti-slavers knew that the slave owners wanted to use the numbers to increase their political power in the Congress, and the abolitionists knew that if they did, slavery would never be abolished. So....the 3/5 compromise to get the union formed.
"Just three years after ratification, in the census of 1790, the numbers were determined according to the Constitution proscription of “adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years…three-fifths of all other Persons.”
Rather than this representing racial animus, this compromise prevented the South from having the representation to always outvote the North on the issue of slavery.
In 1790, the slave population of South Carolina was 77% of the white population. By 1820, slaves outnumbered whites, 265,000 to 237,000, and by 1860, 412,000 to 291,000. Georgia and Virginia, similarly."
Full text of "Heads of families at the first census of the United States taken in the year 1790 .."
Well......the Democrats are using the same plan, but now that they own the judiciary, they get their way:
"Judges halt plan to exclude unauthorized immigrants from count used to award seats in Congress"
Judges halt plan to exclude unauthorized immigrants from count used to award seats in Congress
Since the first census was taken, the U.S. has counted non-citizens for the purposes of awarding seats in the House of Representatives.
Why was it necessary......Obama just told them to go and vote: "When you vote, you're a citizen yourself."
They didn't get citizenship until after 1866 with the 1st civil rights act of 1866
The Naturalization Act of 1790 limited naturalization (and citizenship) to "free white persons," ruling out slaves and free blacks, as well.
Slaves did not have rights, Free blacks in the north had some rights within some states until the Dread Scott decision of 1857 that specifically set forth that African slaves (and their descendants) could never be citizens and had no citizenship rights.
They should have would have could have but didn't have any citizenship until after the civil rights act of 1866
