Silhouette
Gold Member
- Jul 15, 2013
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And so you would argue then that "transsexuals" [there is no such thing] would have a "right" to enter any opposite gender bathroom or lockeroom right? Except that there is a legitimate basis to deny them this. Likewise, two women or two men do not qualify as "man and wife" "father and mother" who are and have been for thousands of years the only qualifiers for "married". There is a legitimate reason, determined by the majority, for limiting marriage to just those two; as opposed to polygamists, gays, siblings etc. That is for the best interest of the children who are most-intrinsic of all people to the word "marriage"..That is discriminatory, and discrimination is illegal. Your argument is invalid.
Nope. You're again misinformed about the nation of discrimination. Discrimination is quite legal depending on the circumstances, and in fact vital to the application of any law. How then could we apply speeding tickets only to those who exceeded the speeding tickets rather than to all drivers? We discriminate, fining only those who have exceeded the statutory limits. We use a valid criteria for discrimination and apply the law accordingly.
On the civil side, a landlord can discriminate against renting to those who don't have enough money to pay the rent. While entering into leases with those who do. Not having enough money to pay is a perfectly legitimate basis of discrimination.
Illegal discrimination is the application of an illegitimate basis of discrimination. Like race, gender or sexual orientation. If you gave someone a ticket because they're black....that's illegal discrimination. If your refused to rent to someone because they are gay, that's illegal discrimination.
You fallaciously lump legal and illegal discrimination together. Which the law doesn't. Rendering your claim of 'invalidity' itself uselessly invalid.