The point that I was making was a simple one...
If government dependency is increasing at a rapid rate over the past forty years and at the same time racism is decreasing at a rapid rate...then why would conditions for blacks in our inner cities be worsening instead of getting better? According to both Closed and Asclepias that shouldn't be happening...yet it is.
You said if. You are wrong in your assumptions, mixed up, and lost trying to explain why events over the last forty years can have an effect on the present but not the last 400 years.
So you're saying that I'm wrong, mixed up and lost when I say the government dependency has increased dramatically over the past 40 years? Or that I'm all of those things when I say that racism has dramatically lessened over the same 40 years? Really?