Skylar
Diamond Member
- Jul 5, 2014
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The basis of inequality is irrelevant. Without a compelling state interest and a very good reason, the State lacks the authority to enact it.
So now you are suggesting a state law can be adopted which discriminates against Blacks if the state has a "very good reason" for the law?
Do you realize how silly your posts are?
JWK
Given that neither the Hinkle ruling, the Windsor Ruling nor Loving V. Virgnia use this as their basis nor apply such a standard, what relevance does this have with our discussion?
You seem really eager to abandon your claims regarding Hinkle's ruling. Why?