Slade3200
Diamond Member
- Jan 13, 2016
- 66,985
- 17,027
No I’m pretty clear you seem to only be reading half my sentences... there is an “and then...” after I brought up the 1960s. What’s wrong with you today? You are missing basic shit.Yes my words that referenced slavery AND AND AND which is a word that links the sentence to include other ideas... In which I continue to say "didn't give minorities the same rights as white people" This oppression continued in our legal system with Jim Crow, through the 60's, and then also through societal discrimination and the effects of generations of poverty and lack of education which has put minority groups at a disadvantage. This is what the term refers to... Not that I expect it to soak into that dense head of yours.I don't like the term white privilege, I see it as inflammatory. Do you really not understand what it is referring to? No it hasn't been gone for well over 100 years. Civil Rights act was in the 60's. The effect of centuries of oppression doesn't just magically go away when a new law is passedSo "white privilege" is something that has been gone for well over 100 years.
YOU claimed that it was a term referencing slavery;
{ refers to a bad time in our history when we used to have slaves and didn’t give minorities the same rights as white people got. }
Your words.
Slavery ended 150 years ago. 1964 was 57 years ago. Yet Nazis throw about this trash as a means of justifying the institutional racism against whites.
There are some racist whites, in fact I find a lot of Nazis who are white to be virulently racist against whites.
What is clear is the Reich need a scapegoat, whites occupy the same strata that Jews did under Hitler. "White privilege" is just another means of creating hatred and resentment against the designated scapegoat of the Reich.
Through the 60's? Did you think the 1964 Civil Rights act was put into law by Obama in 2008?
You seem quite confused.