Pop23
Gold Member
- Mar 28, 2013
- 26,685
- 4,383
Your entire concept is absurd. Just because someone is bisexual and is attracted to members of either gender does not mean that they must be attracted to them at the same time and act upon those attractions at the same time.
Can you be attracted to more than one person at time? Why are you denying yourself bigamy?
Why do you continue to point the mirror away from you and direct it to me?
A bisexual can, and many do, find themselves attracted to members of both genders.
It seems to me that it is I that seeks full equality for all sexualities under the law. You are satisfied for 98% equality.
And to the poster who attempted to bring beastiality into this, how does an animal consent, how does it sign the appropriate contract? Please enlighten me.
One person at a time. You're arguing for bigamy. Why should bigamy apply more to bisexuals? Can you be attracted to two people of the opposite sex? Why can't you marry both of them?
Animals, children, dead people and inanimate objects cannot consent and are irrelevant.
Bigamy? That's a very heterosexual, traditional concept
Let's draw the picture
Two bisexuals, one male, one female meet, fall in love and after discussion think that marriage is a good idea. One benefit is that they both desire a biological child. So they marry and soon have the child.
Later she meets a female that she's attracted to, and they fall in love. She introduces her to her husband and he admits he's attracted to her also. This seems perfect for all concerned. As time goes by, the female and the husband also fall in love and have a child. They all are happy with the arrangement, but they can't marry?
Why?