P F Tinmore; et al,
Self-determination implies that they exercised the rights of sovereignty.
(COMMENT)No it isn't. A state is the product of self determination, not a prerequisite.
Whether Palestine has ever been a state or not (debatable) does not change popular sovereignty under the right to self determination.
When did the Palestinian people exercise their own sovereignty?
What is popular sovereignty? When did the Palestinians exercise "popular sovereignty?"
A number of powers exercised rule over Palestine. But over all of them, none were called Palestinians, nor did these various powers ever giver sovereignty to the inhabitants called Palestinians.
Most Respectfully,
R
Irrelevant. It doesn't matter. Israeli propaganda talking point.
A people can be said to have realised its right to self-determination when they have either (1) established a sovereign and independent state;...
There is a recognised right to self-determination in international law. It is controversial whether a positive right to armed struggle to fulfil this right exists. It is clearly illegal under international law to deprive a people of their right to self-determination by using forcible actions including use of violence.
The right to self-determination - IHL
On the contrary, it is Palestinian propaganda to say that the Palestinians had a country that was taken from them, when in fact, they did not.