OriginalShroom
Gold Member
- Jan 29, 2013
- 4,950
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Using the wiki link that Jake supplied, this is interesting..
In the UK, In 2010/11, 31 people per 1000 interviewed reported being a victim of violent crime in the 12 preceding months.
Meanwhile in the U.S. In 2009 there were 16.9 victimizations per 1000 persons aged 12 and over.
It would appear that the UK is nearly twice as violent as the U.S. . I wonder if that is because in the UK, the violent criminals know that their victims will be unarmed while that is not the case in the U.S.?
At least you are reading. Go above and see the comparisons of crime reporting, which will account for your misunderstanding of the rates.
You are attempting to equate a specific portion instead of overall all violent crime rates then pick one set of laws as being better than the others.
I call that "Cherry Picking".
Instead, look at the over all violent crime rates and then compare them, trying to determine as to why one is vastly different than the other.
Having one country with nearly less than half the crime rate of the other, especially when the larger much more populated country has the lesser amount, is indicative that it is more than simply "They are better people".
Since the discussion is about guns, it does beg the question, since the UK has banned most private ownership of firearms, could that be at the very least a part of the answer as to the difference in rates?
My gut feeling is that the answer is yes.