Question Re Children of Slaves

jwoodie

Platinum Member
Aug 15, 2012
19,705
8,481
Historically, has it always (or usually) been the case that children of slaves were born into slavery themselves? For example, were the children of Roman slaves also slaves or were they considered free persons? I was just wondering if this was relatively unique to American slavery.
 
Last edited:
Historically, has it always (or usually) been the case that children of slaves were born into slavery themselves? For example, were the children of Roman slaves also slaves or were they considered free persons? I was just wondering if this was relatively unique to American slavery.

The children of slaves are the property of the slave owner and has always been since there has been chattle slavery.

You should have looked it up yourself.

Roman Slaves

Slaves were mostly treated very well.

The Roman writer Seneca believed that masters should treat their slaves well as a well treated slave would work better for a good master rather than just doing enough begrudgingly for someone who treated their slaves badly. Seneca did not believe that masters and their families should expect their slaves to watch them eat at a banquet when many had only had access to poor food.

Although most slaves were captured in battle, some slaves were sold by their families. Slavery was important in those days since the concept of wages had not been invented. That's why many "free" people sold their children into slavery under the condition that they would be trained in a trade and become more valuable.
 
American chattel slavery generally followed the rule that the child of a black female slave was a slave.

A child of a free white or black or Indian male with a black female slave was a slave forever.
 
Historically, has it always (or usually) been the case that children of slaves were born into slavery themselves? For example, were the children of Roman slaves also slaves or were they considered free persons? I was just wondering if this was relatively unique to American slavery.

I think it depends where, here in the States if your mother was a slave you were one too.
 
Historically, has it always (or usually) been the case that children of slaves were born into slavery themselves? For example, were the children of Roman slaves also slaves or were they considered free persons? I was just wondering if this was relatively unique to American slavery.

I think it depends where, here in the States if your mother was a slave you were one too.

There was a specific reason for that rule and it still has an effect today.
 
Historically, has it always (or usually) been the case that children of slaves were born into slavery themselves? For example, were the children of Roman slaves also slaves or were they considered free persons? I was just wondering if this was relatively unique to American slavery.

The children of slaves are the property of the slave owner and has always been since there has been chattle slavery.

You should have looked it up yourself.

Roman Slaves

Thanks for the reference, even though you felt compelled to preface it with a snide remark.:eusa_eh: Since you seem to have missed its salient point, I will repeat it for those who have a genuine interest in this topic:

If a slave married and had children, the children would automatically become slaves.

I don't know how accurate this statement is, but I will accept it at face value. However, there did seem to be some avenues for emancipation which were not available to American slaves. (I am just trying to gain an historical perspective on this subject.)
 
Historically, has it always (or usually) been the case that children of slaves were born into slavery themselves? For example, were the children of Roman slaves also slaves or were they considered free persons? I was just wondering if this was relatively unique to American slavery.

The children of slaves are the property of the slave owner and has always been since there has been chattle slavery.

You should have looked it up yourself.

Roman Slaves

Thanks for the reference, even though you felt compelled to preface it with a snide remark.:eusa_eh: Since you seem to have missed its salient point, I will repeat it for those who have a genuine interest in this topic:

If a slave married and had children, the children would automatically become slaves.

I don't know how accurate this statement is, but I will accept it at face value. However, there did seem to be some avenues for emancipation which were not available to American slaves. (I am just trying to gain an historical perspective on this subject.)

Slavery was quite different under the Romans. I know at one point so many slaves were being freed they passed a law saying you could not free a slave until after they were 30.
 

Forum List

Back
Top