WillowTree
Diamond Member
- Sep 15, 2008
- 84,532
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to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
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to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
To counter the rightist agenda that all Muslims must be slaughtered. If your agenda is correct, why must you lie? Last I checked Boston wasn't blown up, it's still there.
when have you EVER been proven correct on your predictions like this?
to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
Liberals are still mad it wasn't a white american that did it.
Liberals are still mad it wasn't a white american that did it.
dear fucking idiot.
they were from the caucasian mountian region.
the live guy is an American and is white.
how stupid are you?
to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
The actual question is why is the right so desperate to convince everyone that the Boston Marathon attackers were connected to someone.
to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
The actual question is why is the right so desperate to convince everyone that the Boston Marathon attackers were connected to someone.
to convince everyone that the muslim terrorists who blew up Boston were connected to no one. WHY?
The actual question is why is the right so desperate to convince everyone that the Boston Marathon attackers were connected to someone.
I know this will be difficult for you , but I will try and explain it, its called- logic.
the preponderance of evidence as to past alike acts have to a very high degree involved 'others'...see how that works?
And I would submit that it is almost always better to hedge your bet, extending investigation and examination AS IF it were so, since the degree of that being true, again, is very high.......
if thats to complicated let me know, I'll break out the Dr. Seuss.