- Banned
- #321
I disagree that history hasn't taught us that extreme wealth inequity is not among those causes.
Can you give an example? Because I'm not coming up with an historical example of wealth disparity resulting in societal collapse.
In the case of Russia it was certainly the direly failed war, plus the Germans sending in Lenin, in a sealed train so he would not infect Germany.
In the case of Southern American slavery, that was certainly wealth disparity but never resulted in meaningful revolt by the slaves. The Civil War was a result of extreme hostility by abolitionists and reaction to laws ending slavery by Southerners, but not wealth disparity.
Even the French Revolution was not a product of wealth disparity, but of severe government collapse because of gross economic malfeasance and of several years of remarkably bad weather that resulted in bad harvests all over.
I can think of many examples of wealth disparity, but none that resulted in societal collapse, revolution, or chaos. I don't think that's where it's at.
I think that you are incorrect about the USSR, the French Revolution, and the Civil War.
For instance the Civil War was about maintaining the extreme wealth inequity in the south. That's why the South suceeded.
In fact it was really a major factor in our Revolutionary war. The hardscrabble American frontier people having to support British nobility.