German grammar follows Latin grammar which follows Greek grammar.It's funny how British English is all fokked up just like their teeth.
The don't follow the Latin rules of subject/verb agreement very well if hardly ever.
Their spelling is more French than the rest of the English Speaking World.
And their pronunciation is more Irish than English.
Good to know.
Not relevant to the O/P's topic however.
Just good to know.
Why would a Germanic language be following Latin rules then, hm?
And why would a Germanic language that's been layered over with French from the Norman daze never show the effects thereof ----- such as pluralizing with -s rather than the old -en --- e.g. y'alls rather than y'allen?
Hm?
I'm sure this is over your head at this point.
The Catholic Church probably had the most to do with formulating German grammar during the Holy Roman Empire period, which was neither holy nor Roman nor an empire.
What is your next impertinent question ?!