OldLady
Diamond Member
- Nov 16, 2015
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Since having the last word seems important to you, there you go.Actually, you have pretty much ignored the entire point of my argument and morphed it into an asinine "what if."Because the militia IS the people. There was no standing army or militia. God you're acting thick.Of course it is about the militia, or that clause would not precede the words you love to quote out of context.
Then why didn't they write the Right of the MILITIA to keep and bear arms, instead of the PEOPLE?
(Psst, they didn't, they gave that right to the people, not the militia)
only select portions of it, as you stated yourself.Because the militia IS the people.
Just think, if only militia were allowed firearms, the Burr/Hamilton duel would have never happened.
They were both over 45, too old to belong to a militia.
You've destroyed your own argument
I can read, pretty well, actually. I know what the Second Amendment says and the right of the people to be armed is directly attributable to the need for a civilian population trained, armed (with their own weapons) and ready to call upon at a moment's notice. That was the militia mentioned in the Second Amendment. That arrangement no longer exists and the Second Amendment is therefore no longer appropos. But I've already said that, so I quit trying to get through to you.
and does not negate they gave the right to bear arms to the people.