I'm for leaving it as it is now that allows the states to decide how they want to determine their electors. I'd vote against a state legislator candidate that favors the determination be based on national popular vote.
The new trend is the "clever" Democrats trying to use states' rights to do an end run around the Constitution AND individual voting rights by having states declare that they will ignore the vote outcomes of their own population, and give their electors to whomever OTHER states vote for.
I expect to see a court challenge against state legislatures disenfranchising their own constituents any day now.
There is nothing in the Constitution that requires how states must choose their electors and so it would be quite legal for each of the states in their wisdom to decide they'll allow you or I to select their electors for them. We already have Maine and Nebraska going the congressional district route as opposed to winner-take-all. Plus in 2016 we had 7 electors from other states that took it upon themselves to cast votes not in accordance with their state's vote. I was able to vote back in 1972 only because of the Constitution amendment lowering the voting age to 18. I looked up the amendment this week and saw that while it gave me the right to vote in any election, it did not require the state to actually hold an election.
The right of citizens of the United States, who are eighteen years of age or older, to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of age.Basically I believe you're stuck talking common sense about how things should be. I'm just cautioning that those that wish not to be disenfranchised best be proactive and not assume the courts will handle it.
I'm aware that the Constitution gives states the power to decide how their electors are allocated, but thank you so very much for "helpfully" providing me a long lecture on it anyway.
Perhaps if you had taken a moment to read and think about my post, rather than just kneejerking to "Aha, here's something I can condescend about!" you'd have noticed that my post mentioned voting rights and disenfranchisement. It's almost like THAT was what I was talking about, and not anything at all to do with "They don't have the power to allocate electors!"
Come back when you have response to my post that actually responds to my post.
Excuse me, I just mistakenly gave you credit for understanding that if a state declares they're going to select electors based on the national, not state's, popular vote then nobody is losing their voting rights or being disenfranchised.
If the State declares they're going to select electors based on the national popular vote, but the state's voters had voted for the other candidate, how are they not losing their voting rights and being disenfranchised?