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dave p
Guest
No they aren’t. They pay in a far lower amount than what is extracted for payment to the welfare recipients. It’s simple math. The average tax payer pays in about $40 per year that goes to welfare. The average welfare recipient receives about $300 per month. So no, they didn’t pay for the cost.Following your train of thought, their family only paid ina percentage of why they would get. Logically the second generation welfare recipient would get a very small amount. However they are getting full benefit which their parents didn’t pay.Nobody finds much interest in discussing the micro percentages of anything. Further, my wealth is my children’s wealth...isn’t that how it’s suppose to work?
If you say that, then the welfare a poor person collects comes from the tax dollars that their previous family members paid in.
You’ll need to make better sense bud.
Are you attempting to tie an analogy together here?
Try to keep up. If your kids wealth is hard earned and productive by association because of what you did, then a person's welfare isn't something they didn't earn and coming out of YOUR tax dollars... it could very well be money THEIR family worked hard for and paid in... by the same association. So if you think your answer is a valid point, the same can be argued on the other side.
What? If their parents of other members of their family paid in and never drew anything out of their own... especially counting interest, then they are more than covering the little amount of welfare the people are getting.
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