Cecilie1200
Diamond Member
That sentence makes no logical sense. You don't know what due process is. You're on the Internet, man. Open a tab and browse
The way you phrased it, no. But it does say that with due process you can violates their rights to life, liberty and property, which includes guns. Assuming by "felon" you mean "convicted felon"
Same answer
Nope. Convict them of their crime and remove their right to a gun, which is what we always advocated
Yeah I know what Due Process is, and having laws on guns doesn't violate that.
Is it written in the Constitution that felons can't vote?
If someone calls someone a felon, why would I need to say convicted felon?
You didn't answer my question however, do you think felons and those that commit domestic violence should own guns?
Having laws where rights are revoked without a fair trial DOES violate it.
We've answered your question repeatedly. Now the question is, why do you continue to ignore the fact that felons and violent criminals HAVE RECEIVED THE DUE PROCESS WE INSIST ON?
Here's another question: would you insist on a trial and a lawyer if we passed a law that your ignorance and dishonesty was a mental illness that should remove your First Amendment rights? Or would you consider the mere passage of that law to be "due process of law"?
That's an absurd analogy. Mental illness and gun violence undoubtedly go hand in hand. Not every person with a MI will become violent, but a MI by definition may result in irrational behavior. The only appropriate question for limiting rights to those with MI diagnosis is what is the temporal connection? A person diagnosed with depression, for example, twenty years ago but who has been successfully treated should not have any limitation.
Felons acted to break the law because they rationally chose to do so. People with MI never broke any laws ... at least in relation to their MI. Or they could be both MI and felons.
Having rights limited without a trial does not necessarily implicate due process. Any assertion a trial is required is just wrong. A person has to have a way to challenge it, though.
Personally I feel that if a person signs up and gets a government check for a mental illness they are deciding to give away their right to own a gun, not only for the safety of others but for their own safety. The law that was passed, was only for that group of people. Now if they decided that owning a gun is more important to them than being labeled as disabled, and they decided to go back to work, I'd be okay with them owning a gun as long as they got a psychiatrist or psychologist to sign off a waiver.
Well, the pt I "tried" to make was that either being a convicted felon or having a MI diagnosis is a rational basis on which to deny a person 2nd Amend rights. However, a MI diagnosis and felon status are not alike in that a person with a MI has not shown an unwillingness to abide by law. Rather, they've shown they are ill ... or were ill at sometime. There are thousands, if not hundreds of thousands, of people who've have a MI diagnosis at some time or another, but have not manifested any irrational or violent ideations in many years. Any restriction on a right has to be rationally tied to accomplishing the goal. We shouldn't let 18 year olds buy weapons, but their legal disability ends after a time.
And a person under a restriction has to have "right" to a hearing to challenge that they don't fit the restriction.
I go in peace. LOL
No, being a convicted felon is a rational basis, because they've been provided the full scope of due process available. A person whose doctor diagnoses him/her with anorexia? Not so much.