Especially since when you're interpreting the word "arms", you're at least talking about something that actually APPEARS IN THE CONSTITUTION.
The Heller ruling addressed the issue of an individual right verses a collective right and the right of self defense. The words individual and self defense are not in the Second Amendment, yet the Court ruled that one has an individual right to own a handgun in the context of the Constitutional right to self defense. Consequently the right of the individual to own a handgun in self defense is in the Constitution, as with separation of church and State. That the actual words arent in the Constitution is irrelevant. The Court interpreted the Second Amendment accordingly, just as it did with the First Amendment.
Or
If you reject the Constitutional doctrine of separation of church and State you must also reject the Constitutional doctrine of the individual right to own a handgun in self defense.
One cant have it both ways.
I do reject the unconstitutional doctrine of ceparation of church and state. I also reject the unconstitutional doctrine of the individual right to own a hand gun for self defense.
You have a right to own a handgun.
The Heller case was the correct ruling but the opinion and the methodology used to get to the decision was absolutely incorrect. I believe it was done in that way with the intent of establishing another "doctrine" that we will look back on and regret at some point in the future.
Here is the short version of my case: (If you really want, I will go look up the post that I made, if its archived, about this very issue after the opinions were released. I am an active member of another, more private board and I don't know if they have a 2 year history.)
The Heller case should have only been decided considering the 2nd Amendment. The first amendment is constructed in an entirely different manner from the second amendment and the 14th amendment is similar in construct but it should not have been applied in this case. The question is not "Does a person have the right to bear arms for self defense" it is does a person have the right to bear arms. The Second amendment didn't leave out any words, there are no implied meanings if you read it as it was intended at the time.
The states got together and agreed that the the rights of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. There is no need for the 14th Amendment in the argument. There is no need for anything in the argument, it is simple, it shall not be infringed... period.
Mike