James Everett
Active Member
- Nov 14, 2014
- 771
- 14
- 31
Look Yankee "Nutter" it was legal under YOUR U.S. COznstitution from 1789 until 1865. Absent a law or Constitutional prohibition, then it was legal, and you cannot cite either. Look you opened yourself up to be exposed as a Yankee hypocrite, now deal with that which you are.Slavery was not constitutional. The fugitive slave clause was about states rights. It did not make slavery constitutional under the US constitution.3/5th compromise, Fugitive Slave Clause, and slave trade clause.If you mean the 3/5 compromise, that was unconstitutional, as subsequent actions proved. Just because some assholes did something didn't make it constitutional.Those words aren't in the Constitution.No. All are created equal. The interpretation pretended it was legal but it was not.In the US, Constitutionally, it was legal.
Slavery was legally Constitutional - with three separate places it explicitly recognized and protected slavery.
Because it was Constitutional was why Lincoln couldn't just free the slaves. An Amendment was needed for that.
And he signed that Amendment. Even though it wasn't required or ever done before - he signed it.
Look, I know you are trying to say it was subsequently unconstitutional, but if it's part of the Constitution at the time it *was* Constitutional.
After 1865, it became unconstitutional.
States do not have rights, people do, States are granted power by the people who have rights. "States rights" is a product of the CON that began in 1787.