NYcarbineer
Diamond Member
To make a proper case for proclaiming the failure of the welfare state, one would have to prove (or at least present ample evidence for) the counterfactual, i.e.,
that had the US not implemented any of the poverty programs of the past 50 or more years,
then there would now be less poverty than we have.
No one even attempts to make that case, oddly enough.
You don't recall reading this in the OP?
". the poverty rate has remained relatively constant since 1965, despite rising
welfare spending. In fact, the only appreciable decline occurred in the 1990s, a time of
state experimentation with tightening welfare eligibility, culminating in the passage
of national welfare reform (the Personal Responsibility and Work Responsibility Act of
1996)."
Remember, you shouldnt drink on an empty head.
Your post has nothing to do with my post. I think you may have answered someone else's.