How did he infect six of his patients if biting, saliva, or throwing blood on someone can't infect anyone? What happened? Did he have sex with them?
It was 23 years ago, and I wasn't there. So I don't know.
I do understand enough about biology to know that the AIDS virus cannot be transmitted through saliva ever, and that there has never been a case of AIDS being transmitted by biting or throwing blood.
So how did he infect not just one, but SIX of his patients? Because it was 20 something years ago it's okay to pretend it didn't happen if admitting it hurts your argument?
I'm not "pretending it didn't happen". I'm saying that I don't know the specifics of that case.
Again, that's not my "argument". My "argument" is the biological fact that saliva cannot transmit the HIV virus, and the historical fact that no one has ever been infected by someone biting them or throwing blood on them.