GreenAndBlue
Gold Member
- Dec 4, 2018
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- #101
Actually, no. A requirement to own property is not in the Constitution.Our founders did not intend for a democracy of unwise voters to elect our govt..
They used a property test as their wisdom test
There were SOME states which bestowed suffrage only on property owners. However, four states allowed freed slaves to vote. New Jersey even allowed women to vote.
I get tired of people who speak of our Founders as some monolithic body.
You missed it
A property test for voting was not s property test it was a logic test
There is one clue to prove that
Women could own property but could not vote