Vandalshandle
Gold Member
You know this how? Let me ask you this, if you are right in your belief, why would they have needed to ban guns in the first place?I don't believe history has proven the Founding Fathers wrong that a well armed populace is the best protection of freedom and liberty. I believe you making fringe arguments that don't go to the heart of addressing what the Founding Fathers knew and history has proven.History has proven the Founding Fathers wrong
Even in the Revolutionary War where local militias were actually used, they were found to be minimally effective. It was not the local minuteman that won the war.......It was the Continental Army and the French Navy
The Founders disdained the idea of a standing Army....once again, history proved them wrong. Lack of a standing Army almost cost us the country in 1812. We also suffered for it during WWI and WWII
Armies are not a bunch of guys with guns running around and shooting at stuff.
1911 – Turkey disarmed it’s citizens, and between 1915 – 1917 they murdered 1.5 million Armenians.
1929 – Russia disarmed it’s citizens, and between 1929 – 1953 they murdered 20 million Russians.
1935 – China disarmed it’s citizens, and between 1948 – 1952 they murdered 20 million Chinese.
1938 – Germany disarmed it’s citizens, and between 1939 – 1945 they murdered 16 million Jews.
1956 – Cambodia disarmed it’s citizens, and between 1975 – 1977 they murdered 1 million Educated people.
1964 – Guatemala disarmed it’s citizens, and between 1964 – 1981 they murdered 100,000 Mayan Indians.
1970 – Uganda disarmed it’s citizens, and between 1971 – 1979 they murdered 300,000 Christians.
Death by "Gun Control"
Nice try but proves nothing
None of your examples prove that if the population had been armed they would have overwhelmed the government forces. In fact, it would have led to greater slaughter
Most importantly, none of them had a free press, freedom of speech or a vote that would have prevented the despotic rulers to come into power
If you have a strong first amendment, you have no need for a second
Really? you cant be serious. If you are correct that there is no proof armed populations would have protected themselves from slaughter and genocide, than why is it that all of those cases occurred after the populations were disarmed? Why didnt those things happen while the populations were still armed? It had to be after and the proof is pretty self evident unless you happen to be an attorney, then you might work some way around it
I'm sure that the Armenian peasants and shepherds had a lot of guns confiscated. Maybe 10 or 11, anyway.
Well, there was this little dust up going on, which was later referred to as WWI, in which all of the various ethnic cultures under domination of the Turks were trying to overthrow the Turks. You must have heard about it. It was in all the papers....
Private ownership of guns in that region was almost unheard of at the time. They were lucky if they could afford a dagger.
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