rylah
Gold Member
- Jun 10, 2015
- 21,928
- 4,687
Then why you are choosy, discus all.Then I will say that popular vote for israel is only became possible, when UN gave mandate to Israel in 1947.
You say many stuff,
but the UN didn't give any mandate to Israel, it was not entitled to do so, the mandate, or recognition of right to govern was given with the obligation to follow the establishment of the re-constitution of the Jewish nation. The authority of the UN itself is preconditioned on following its constitution, which includes this legal obligation.
Because it shows the rest of Your bs to be utter nonsense.