Spare_change
Gold Member
- Jun 27, 2011
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- #121
In general, they didn't earn their wealth, for starters. And while not a zero-sum game the wealthy benefit greatly compared to what they produce. It's why Adam Smith had no problems with them paying more than their fair share.Please elaborate on what the rich receive above which they have earned.Well beyond.Do the rich receive their fare share?
In general, that is an unmitigated lie. Most rich earn their wealth. Your ad hominem attack holds no validity whatsoever.
Then, you make this bold, sweeping statement that "... the wealthy benefit greatly compared to what they produce ...". Again, no proof, because it's false.
Cut the rhetoric - deal in reality.