Zone1 Mary's sinlessness

[ding]

Is that what I said? No.

Ding, you are a time wasting troll.

Actually I'm trying to show you to look at the full picture.

 

[Meriweather]

But for now I quickly looked up the original word translated as "highly favored" in most translations, in Strong's Concordance, and nowhere did it say sinless, or even imply sinlessness.

Kecharitōmenē, whose root is the verb (past perfect tense) charitoo, meaning the action of giving grace has already occurred. In the Bible, kecharitōmenē was applied to one person, Mary. Further, ‘kecharitōmenē’ was not giving a description of Mary, but the title of Mary.

Translations into another language are always difficult, not to mention awkward. A title of highly favored/one who in the past perfect sense has been endued with grace (full of grace), is not merely a description, but her title.

The best argument is, “Luke got it wrong.”

To sum up the rest of thread was a discussion whether someone filled with grace is capable of sin. hadit was saying that since sins are forgiven, based on forgiveness, people can stand before God filled with grace. The rebuttal is that one full of grace would reject sin instead of committing sin.

 

[BreezeWood]

If she wasn't raped, then she lied.

You do have a problem with basic logic, from time to time.

she was not raped and did not deny their pregnancy made through their own decision is the true opening scene of the 1st century, the repudiation of judaism and their false commandments.

the christian bible distorts the characterization for their own narrative in the 4th century and use throughout their bible for their own purposes.