Zone1 A Brief History of modern Christianity, Catholic v Protestant

[LeroyDumonde]

No. Why would you ask that?

Because they did. Not sure if you're being dishonest or ignorant.

 

[ding]

You asked me what I thought it means. I responded that I think it means what the Church said it means. I've previously given a link to the Church's definition. So I absolutely did answer your question. If you're too lazy to click a link then that's not my problem.

Which doesn't tell me what YOU think it means. So without you stating your perception of what you think the Church thinks it means, I'll never know what you think it means.

 

[Meriweather]

Because they did. Not sure if you're being dishonest or ignorant.

I am sure it is you who are mistaken. Indulgences were never for sale. Basically, Indulgences were applied after sins had been forgiven. They could not be used to work off "time" in purgatory, etc., because they were reparation for secular or worldly injury sin had caused to another or others that were beyond making personal restitution. Catholics trust in God's ability to make good the bad sinfulness enables, so most Indulgences were in the form of prayer. Works of charity might also be offered--feeding, clothing, sheltering the poor. Monetary donations could be given to schools or charitable organizations. Luther--among other Catholic priests--objected when one bishop offered indulgences for gift contributions to his building fund. In fact, so many within the church objected, that in 1567, the Pope forbade indulgences being granted for any monetary offering. Prayers and other works of charity remained.

 

[ding]

Hence my question what do YOU think indulgences mean.