Zone1 The term "Personal relationship with Jesus" is not in the Bible

Another explanation is that Cleophas was the brother of Joseph (Mary's husband) and Cleophas wife was also named Mary, meaning they were sisters-in-law, not biological sisters. Mary's biological sister was thought to be Salome, who was Zebedee's wife, the mother of James and John. This would make James and John the cousins of Jesus--and Peter, as a fisherman, knew and worked with James and John. Andrew, of course, was Peter's brother.

It appears that his mother, two aunts, and Mary Magdalene were the women at Jesus' crucifixion, and were also the ones preparing for his burial. (Mark mentions Salome by name at the crucifixion.)

When Jesus told John, "Behold your mother..." and Mary, "Behold your son..." the two had a blood relationship of aunt and nephew.
It's like some believe this hasn't been discussed and deliberated upon before and are surprised to hear such a strong scriptural based argument. They only have a vague understanding of the texts so when they hear something from someone that superficially confirms their bias they latch onto it without any investigation and trot out their beliefs as if they were self evident facts when in reality it's just them confirming their bias.
 
It's like some believe this hasn't been discussed and deliberated upon before and are surprised to hear such a strong scriptural based argument. They only have a vague understanding of the texts so when they hear something from someone that superficially confirms their bias they latch onto it without any investigation and trot out their beliefs as if they were self evident facts when in reality it's just them confirming their bias.
The author of the Book of James was the brother of Jesus. Therefore, Mary wasn't a virgin after the birth of Jesus just as the Scripture says in the first chapter of Matthew.
 
The author of the Book of James was the brother of Jesus. Therefore, Mary wasn't a virgin after the birth of Jesus just as the Scripture says in the first chapter of Matthew.
That's already been addressed and refuted in posts 269, 271, 272, 273 and 274.

Besides if James were really the son of Mary why did Jesus entrust the care of Mary to John? Why wasn't James - who you claim is her son - responsible for providing for Mary - as per Jewish law - if James were really her son?

Before He dies, our Lord says to Mary, “Woman, there is your son,” and then to St. John, who is definitely not a blood brother, “There is your mother.” According to Jewish law, the oldest son had the responsibility of caring for the widowed mother, and that responsibility would pass to the next oldest if anything happened to the first born son. By this time, St. Joseph had died. Since Jesus, the first born, had no “blood brother,” He entrusted Mary to the care of St. John, the Beloved Disciple…”
 
Pyramids are occultism.
Apparently so is Protestantism. Because you have been brainwashed and reject scripture which clearly establishes that at the death of Jesus the obligation to provide for Mary was transferred to John and not James which it what would have happened if James were her son.
 
That's already been addressed and refuted in posts 269, 271, 272, 273 and 274.

Besides if James were really the son of Mary why did Jesus entrust the care of Mary to John? Why wasn't James - who you claim is her son - responsible for providing for Mary - as per Jewish law - if James were really her son?
Those are questions for you to ask Jesus if you see him. However, the Scriptures are clear. James said he was the Lord's brother, and Matthew says Joseph didn't know his wife until she had given birth to Jesus. Not my opinion. Scriptural fact. Read it for yourself.
 
Apparently so is Protestantism. Because you have been brainwashed and reject scripture which clearly establishes that at the death of Jesus the obligation to provide for Mary was transferred to John and not James which it what would have happened if James were her son.
Show me the Scripture that says John was to provide for Mary. Jesus wasn't her provider because he didn't have a home.
 
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Those are questions for you to ask Jesus if you see him. However, the Scriptures are clear. James said he was the Lord's brother, and Matthew says Joseph didn't know his wife until she had given birth to Jesus. Not my opinion. Scriptural fact. Read it for yourself.
No. It's proof that James wasn't the son of Mary which is what posts 269, 271, 272, 273 and 274 explain in detail along with references to scripture.
 
Show me the Scripture that says John was to provide for Mary. Jesus wasn't her provider because he didn't have a home.
Why? According to you it doesn't matter. According to you you need to ask Jesus why he said it.

John 19:26-27
26 When Jesus saw his mother and the disciple there whom he loved, he said to his mother, “Woman, behold, your son.”

27 Then he said to the disciple, “Behold, your mother.” And from that hour the disciple took her into his home.
 
Why? According to you it doesn't matter. According to you you need to ask Jesus why he said it.

John 19:26-27
26 When Jesus saw his mother and the disciple there whom he loved, he said to his mother, “Woman, behold, your son.”
27 Then he said to the disciple, “Behold, your mother.” And from that hour the disciple took her into his home.
Matthew 13: 55-56
“Isn’t this the carpenter’s son? Isn’t his mother’s name Mary, and aren’t his brothers James, Joseph, Simon and Judas? Aren’t all his sisters with us? Where then did this man get all these things?
 
Matthew 13: 55-56
“Isn’t this the carpenter’s son? Isn’t his mother’s name Mary, and aren’t his brothers James, Joseph, Simon and Judas? Aren’t all his sisters with us? Where then did this man get all these things?
Already addressed this in posts 269, 271, 272, 273 and 274.

Again... if James were really the son of Mary Jesus wouldn't have entrusted the care of Mary to John. Per Jewish law that obligation would have fallen to the next oldest son. But there was none. So Jesus entrusted the care of his mother to John, the disciple whom he loved. And from that hour the disciple took her into his home.
 
Why? According to you it doesn't matter. According to you you need to ask Jesus why he said it.

John 19:26-27
26 When Jesus saw his mother and the disciple there whom he loved, he said to his mother, “Woman, behold, your son.”
27 Then he said to the disciple, “Behold, your mother.” And from that hour the disciple took her into his home.
Where was Jesus's house?
 
Already addressed this in posts 269, 271, 272, 273 and 274.

Again... if James were really the son of Mary Jesus wouldn't have entrusted the care of Mary to John. Per Jewish law that obligation would have fallen to the next oldest son. But there was none. So Jesus entrusted the care of his mother to John, the disciple whom he loved. And from that hour the disciple took her into his home.
That's your opinion. You need to show me Scripture to support that opinion. Go ahead.
 
You agree that people should be forced into changing their beliefs? What is wrong with simply talking? That is what Jesus did. He never forced anyone.
No, he was talking about WITNESSING to others. Whether I agree with HIS beliefs or not, Christ COMMANDS His followers to preach the gospel as they understand it. This is why we hay a responsibility to get it right.
 
You said Jesus provided for his mother. Where did they live?
Are you seriously arguing against Jewish law? The key point here is that if James were the son of Mary as you claim - there would have been no need for Jesus to transfer his obligation to John as that obligation would have automatically transferred to the next oldest son but since there were no other sons, Jesus selected John - the disciple he loved the most - to care for his mother.

And from that hour the disciple took her into his home. John 19:27
 

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